Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority for the nurse when caring for a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Ensure tube patency and observe for air leaks
• B. Maintain sterile technique during dressing changes
• C. Monitor drainage and record output
• D. Observe for signs of infection and monitor for subcutaneous emphysema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority for the nurse when caring for a patient with a chest tube is to ensure tube patency and observe for air leaks. This is essential to prevent complications such as pneumothorax and ensure the patient's lung function. While maintaining sterile technique during dressing changes, monitoring drainage, recording output, and observing for signs of infection and subcutaneous emphysema are also important, ensuring tube patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's respiratory status and overall safety.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

3. After sustaining a closed head injury and numerous lacerations and abrasions to the face and neck, a five-year-old child is admitted to the emergency room. The client is unconscious and has minimal response to noxious stimuli. Which of the following assessments, if observed by the nurse three hours after admission, should be reported to the physician?

• A. The client has slight edema of the eyelids
• B. There is clear fluid draining from the client's right ear
• C. There is some bleeding from the child's lacerations
• D. The client withdraws in response to painful stimuli

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clear fluid draining from the ear can indicate cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a serious concern after a head injury. This leakage can signify a skull fracture or damage to the meninges, potentially leading to infection. Therefore, it should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are typical findings after head trauma and are not as urgent as the presence of clear fluid draining from the ear.

4. How can pain in a post-operative patient be managed effectively?

• A. Administer analgesics as prescribed
• B. Encourage deep breathing exercises
• C. Provide distractions
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Managing pain in a post-operative patient requires a multimodal approach, which includes both pharmacological and non-pharmacological strategies. Administering analgesics as prescribed helps in controlling pain pharmacologically. Encouraging deep breathing exercises can aid in pain management by promoting relaxation and reducing anxiety. Providing distractions, such as music or activities, can help divert the patient's attention from pain. Therefore, all the given options are essential components of an effective pain management plan for post-operative patients.

5. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

Similar Questions