ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. What are the steps in managing a patient with a pressure ulcer?
- A. Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing
- B. Debride necrotic tissue and apply antibiotics
- C. Apply an alginate dressing and elevate the affected area
- D. Use moisture-retentive dressings and reposition frequently
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This step is crucial in managing a pressure ulcer as it helps protect the ulcer from infection and promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to tissue repair. Choice B, debriding necrotic tissue and applying antibiotics, is more suitable for managing infected pressure ulcers but not as the initial step. Choice C, applying an alginate dressing and elevating the affected area, may be part of the management but is not the initial step. Choice D, using moisture-retentive dressings and repositioning frequently, is important for prevention but not the first step in managing an existing pressure ulcer.
2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking milk.
- B. I should avoid drinking coffee.
- C. I should avoid eating high-fiber foods.
- D. I should avoid eating low-fat foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.
3. A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering it to a client who already has hypotension could exacerbate this condition. Therefore, hypotension is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem. Incorrect Choices: B) Tachycardia is not a contraindication for administering diltiazem in atrial fibrillation as it is commonly used to control the heart rate. C) Decreased level of consciousness may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. D) History of diuretic use is not a contraindication if the client is not currently experiencing hypotension.
4. Which monosaccharide only occurs naturally in foods in combination with another sugar as a disaccharide?
- A. Fructose.
- B. Galactose.
- C. Sucrose.
- D. Maltose.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, galactose. Galactose naturally occurs in foods only when it is combined with glucose to form lactose, a disaccharide found in milk. Fructose is a monosaccharide found in fruits and honey. Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose, commonly known as table sugar. Maltose is a disaccharide formed by the combination of two glucose molecules.
5. Which of the following findings is abnormal?
- A. Rapid, irregular breathing in a newly born infant
- B. Heart rate of 80 beats/min in a 3-month-old infant
- C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min in a 2-year-old child
- D. Systolic BP of 100 mm Hg in a 10-year-old child
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A heart rate of 80 beats per minute in a 3-month-old infant is abnormally low for that age group and could indicate underlying health issues. The normal heart rate for a 3-month-old infant is typically higher, around 100-150 beats per minute. Therefore, this finding stands out as abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choice A is not necessarily abnormal in a newly born infant as irregular breathing patterns can be common during the neonatal period. Choice C falls within the normal respiratory rate range for a 2-year-old child, which is around 20-30 breaths per minute. Choice D reflects a systolic blood pressure value within the normal range for a 10-year-old child, which is typically around 90-110 mm Hg.
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