ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1. What are the signs and symptoms of fluid overload, and how should a nurse manage this condition?
- A. Edema, weight gain, shortness of breath
- B. Fever, cough, chest pain
- C. Increased heart rate, low blood pressure
- D. Increased blood pressure, jugular venous distention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fluid overload manifests as edema, weight gain, and shortness of breath. These symptoms occur due to an excess of fluid in the body. Managing fluid overload involves interventions such as monitoring fluid intake and output, adjusting diuretic therapy, restricting fluid intake, and collaborating with healthcare providers to address the underlying cause. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent typical signs of fluid overload. Fever, cough, chest pain, increased heart rate, low blood pressure, increased blood pressure, and jugular venous distention are not primary indicators of fluid overload.
2. What is the priority intervention for sepsis?
- A. Administer IV antibiotics
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Administer fluids
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the management of sepsis, prompt intervention is crucial. Administering IV antibiotics is essential to target the underlying infection. Monitoring blood pressure helps assess the patient's hemodynamic status. Administering fluids is vital to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of the initial management of sepsis, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choosing any single intervention over the others may delay optimal care and compromise patient outcomes.
3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
- C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.
4. What is the best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, when the client expresses concern about fatigue?
- A. Provide clear instructions on how to ask for assistance
- B. Gradually resume self-care tasks, focusing on rest periods
- C. Encourage assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
- D. Encourage the client to remain in bed until fully rested
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, especially when the client expresses concern about fatigue, is to gradually resume self-care tasks while focusing on rest periods. This approach allows the client to build confidence in managing their self-care activities while also addressing the issue of fatigue. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on asking for assistance rather than promoting self-care. Choice C is inappropriate as it suggests delegating the client's self-care tasks to assistive personnel instead of empowering the client. Choice D is incorrect as it can lead to deconditioning and is not conducive to the client's recovery process.
5. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?
- A. Sweating, nausea; administer methadone
- B. Muscle cramps, vomiting; administer naloxone
- C. Tremors, sweating; administer buprenorphine
- D. Fever, agitation; provide sedatives
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.
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