ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What are the key considerations for managing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Airway Management
- B. Oxygen Therapy
- C. Smoking Cessation
- D. Pulmonary Rehabilitation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include airway management, ensuring adequate oxygenation, promoting smoking cessation, and incorporating pulmonary rehabilitation. While airway management is crucial for maintaining patency and preventing exacerbations, oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen levels in the blood. Smoking cessation is essential to slow down disease progression and reduce exacerbation risk. Pulmonary rehabilitation plays a vital role in enhancing exercise tolerance and overall quality of life for COPD patients. Therefore, while all options are important in managing COPD, airway management is the most critical aspect.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
- B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
- C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
- D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.
3. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
- B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) about dietary modifications. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase fiber intake to 35 grams per day
- B. Avoid dairy products
- C. Eat small, frequent meals
- D. Avoid fruits and vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Eat small, frequent meals.' Eating small, frequent meals helps manage IBS symptoms by avoiding overloading the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because increasing fiber intake may worsen symptoms in some individuals with IBS. Choice B is not a blanket recommendation for all IBS patients; some may tolerate dairy products well. Choice D is incorrect as fruits and vegetables are important sources of nutrients and should not be completely avoided unless specific triggers are identified.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Dry cough
- C. Tremors
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of enalapril that can indicate the development of angioedema or potentially life-threatening angioedema. An onset of dry cough should be reported to the provider promptly as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Frequent urination, tremors, and dizziness are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be of immediate concern compared to a dry cough in this context.
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