Nursing Elites

1. What are the common causes of postoperative pain and how should it be managed?

• A. Surgical incision and muscle tension
• B. Nerve damage and wound complications
• C. Hypotension and respiratory issues
• D. Infection at the incision site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Postoperative pain is commonly caused by the surgical incision and muscle tension. The correct answer is A. Surgical incisions cause tissue damage, triggering pain responses. Muscle tension can result from factors like positioning during surgery or guarding due to pain. Managing postoperative pain caused by surgical incisions and muscle tension involves the use of analgesics to alleviate discomfort. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Nerve damage and wound complications may also cause pain but are not as common as surgical incisions and muscle tension. Hypotension and respiratory issues are not direct causes of postoperative pain. Infection at the incision site can lead to pain, but it is a specific complication rather than a common cause of postoperative pain.

2. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?

• A. Hand hygiene
• B. Wearing personal protective equipment
• C. Sterilizing equipment
• D. Isolating infected patients

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hand hygiene is considered the most effective method to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Proper hand hygiene, including washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer, is crucial in reducing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another. While wearing personal protective equipment, sterilizing equipment, and isolating infected patients are also important infection control measures, they are not as universally effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections. Personal protective equipment can prevent contact with infectious materials, sterilizing equipment reduces the risk of contamination, and isolating infected patients helps prevent the spread of specific infections, but they are more targeted approaches compared to the broad and essential practice of hand hygiene.

3. What are the signs of hypovolemic shock and what is the nurse's role in management?

• A. Rapid pulse, low blood pressure; administer IV fluids
• B. Cold extremities, rapid breathing; administer oxygen
• C. Decreased urine output, sweating; administer diuretics
• D. Weak pulse, clammy skin; administer vasopressors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hypovolemic shock are a rapid pulse and low blood pressure. Administering IV fluids helps to restore circulating volume, which is essential in managing hypovolemic shock. Choice B is incorrect because cold extremities and rapid breathing are not typical signs of hypovolemic shock. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics would further decrease circulating volume, worsening the condition. Choice D is incorrect as administering vasopressors may further compromise perfusion in hypovolemic shock.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

• A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
• C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
• D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

Similar Questions