a nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate turp which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical-surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following should the nurse identify as a priority nursing assessment after reviewing the client's information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Following a TURP procedure, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate potential postoperative complications such as hemorrhage or shock. Skin turgor (choice B) is more related to hydration status, deep-tendon reflexes (choice C) are not the priority post-TURP, and bowel sounds (choice D) are important but not the priority in this situation.

2. When assessing a client with signs of delirium, which factor should be the nurse's priority in determining the cause?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a client with signs of delirium, the priority in determining the cause should be focusing on fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Delirium can often be linked to imbalances in these essential elements, making it crucial to address them promptly. While medication history, psychosocial stressors, and environmental factors can also contribute to delirium, they should be assessed after addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances due to their immediate impact on cognitive function.

3. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

5. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize for a client with dementia who is at risk of falls?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using a bed exit alarm system is a non-restrictive intervention that alerts staff when the client tries to leave the bed, promoting safety and preventing falls. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can have adverse effects and should be avoided whenever possible. Choice C is not the priority for a client at risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls without proper supervision. Choice D is also not recommended as raising all four side rails can lead to restraint and should be used cautiously, if at all. Therefore, the best option is to use a bed exit alarm system to ensure the client's safety while allowing some freedom of movement.

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