ATI LPN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Test
1. What is the main function of the uterus?
- A. Dilate and expel the baby from the cervix.
- B. House the fetus as it grows for 40 weeks.
- C. Provide a cushion and protect the fetus from infection.
- D. Provide oxygen and other nutrients to the fetus.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main function of the uterus is to house and nurture the growing fetus for approximately 40 weeks during pregnancy. It provides the necessary environment for the fetus to develop and grow until it is ready for birth. Choice A is incorrect as the cervix, not the uterus, dilates during labor to allow the baby to pass through. Choice C is incorrect as while the uterus does provide a protective environment, its primary function is not to act as a cushion. Choice D is incorrect as the placenta, not the uterus, is responsible for providing oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
2. Which of the following is a sign of altered mental status in a small child?
- A. Fear of the EMT's presence.
- B. Recognition of the parents.
- C. Inattention to the EMT's presence.
- D. Consistent eye contact with the EMT.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inattention to the EMT's presence is a sign of altered mental status in a small child. When a child is not responsive or does not acknowledge the presence of the EMT, it could indicate a change in their mental status. This lack of attention or awareness may signify a neurological issue or other medical condition affecting the child's cognitive function.
3. The nurse is assessing a postpartum client's fundus. Where should the nurse expect to find the fundus 24 hours after delivery?
- A. At the level of the umbilicus
- B. 1 cm above the symphysis pubis
- C. At the level of the xiphoid process
- D. 2 cm below the umbilicus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After delivery, the fundus is expected to be at the level of the umbilicus 24 hours postpartum. This position indicates that the uterus is involuting properly. Assessing the fundal height helps monitor the progress of uterine involution and can identify any potential complications like postpartum hemorrhage.
4. The healthcare provider assesses a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Lochia rubra with a few small clots
- B. Fundus firm and midline
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
- D. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, which is abnormal postpartum. This finding could suggest hemorrhage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial to ensure the client's safety and prevent serious consequences.
5. When is it MOST appropriate to clamp and cut the umbilical cord?
- A. Before the newborn has taken its first breath
- B. After the placenta has completely delivered
- C. As soon as the cord has stopped pulsating
- D. Immediately following delivery of the newborn
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The ideal time to clamp and cut the umbilical cord is when it has stopped pulsating. This allows for the transfer of remaining blood from the placenta to the newborn, which can be beneficial for the baby's health and iron stores. Clamping the cord too early can deprive the newborn of this essential blood volume. Waiting for the pulsations to cease ensures that the baby receives the maximum benefits from delayed cord clamping.
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