ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medications and monitor blood pressure
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction
- C. Administer diuretics and provide oxygen therapy
- D. Provide IV fluids and monitor for kidney failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
- B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?
- A. Cardiac workload decreases
- B. Blood pressure increases
- C. Respiratory rate increases
- D. Temperature decreases
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac workload decreases. Digoxin helps reduce cardiac workload in clients with heart failure, improving symptoms. This reduction in workload indicates that the medication is effective. Choice B, blood pressure increases, is incorrect because digoxin typically does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C, respiratory rate increases, is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of digoxin effectiveness. Choice D, temperature decreases, is also incorrect as digoxin does not typically affect body temperature.
4. What are the primary differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment?
- A. Type 1: No insulin production; Type 2: Insulin resistance
- B. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
- C. Type 1: Autoimmune; Type 2: Lifestyle-related
- D. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Diet modification
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.
5. A client who is to undergo a colonoscopy is being taught by a nurse about the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will drink liquids right up until the procedure.
- B. I will need to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before the procedure.
- C. I will be sedated and will not feel any pain during the procedure.
- D. I will not need to follow any specific dietary restrictions for this procedure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. During a colonoscopy, clients are typically sedated, so they do not feel any pain during the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Clients are usually required to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before a colonoscopy, and there are specific dietary restrictions that need to be followed before the procedure to ensure a successful examination.
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