Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a fever?

• A. Administer antipyretics and monitor vital signs
• B. Provide cold compresses and ensure adequate hydration
• C. Encourage the patient to rest and increase fluid intake
• D. Restrict fluid intake and provide bed rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When managing a patient with a fever, the appropriate approach involves administering antipyretics to reduce the fever and monitoring the patient's vital signs to assess their response to treatment. Administering antipyretics helps to lower the body temperature and manage fever symptoms effectively. Monitoring vital signs is crucial to ensure the patient's condition is improving. Providing cold compresses, as mentioned in choice B, can help in managing fever symptoms, but it does not address the root cause of the fever. Encouraging the patient to rest, as stated in choice C, is beneficial for recovery, but increasing fluid intake is essential to prevent dehydration. Restricting fluid intake and providing bed rest, as in choice D, can lead to dehydration and hinder the body's ability to fight off the infection causing the fever. Therefore, the best course of action for a healthcare provider is to administer antipyretics while closely monitoring the patient's vital signs.

2. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Sedation.
• D. Shuffling gait.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

4. What are common signs of hypoglycemia?

• A. Shakiness or Tremors
• B. Sweating
• C. Hunger
• D. Confusion or Irritability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness or tremors, sweating, and hunger. These symptoms indicate low blood sugar levels. Confusion or irritability are more associated with severe hypoglycemia, while the immediate treatment for hypoglycemia involves providing a source of glucose to raise blood sugar levels quickly.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has peptic ulcer disease about preventing exacerbations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use antacids containing magnesium frequently
• B. Limit alcohol consumption
• C. Eat smaller, frequent meals
• D. Increase caffeine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit alcohol consumption. Alcohol consumption can aggravate peptic ulcer disease by increasing gastric acid secretion, potentially leading to exacerbations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended because antacids containing magnesium can interfere with other medications or conditions the client may have. Choice C is a good recommendation; however, it is not the priority instruction for preventing exacerbations. Choice D is also incorrect as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can worsen peptic ulcer disease.

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