Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

• A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
• C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
• D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

2. A nurse is assisting with performing a nonstress test for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Do not press the button during baby's movements
• B. You should depress the button when you feel your baby move
• C. Press the button only during contractions
• D. Do not eat before the test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should press the button when feeling fetal movement to track the baby's activity. Choice A is incorrect because the client should press the button during movements. Choice C is incorrect as the button should be pressed during fetal movements, not contractions. Choice D is irrelevant to the instructions for the nonstress test.

3. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?

• A. The client's urine test is positive for glucose and acetone
• B. The client has 1+ pedal edema in both feet at the end of the day
• C. The client complains of an increase in vaginal discharge
• D. The client says she feels pressure against her diaphragm when the baby moves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.

4. A client with a tracheostomy is experiencing increased secretions and labored breathing. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Suction the tracheostomy
• C. Encourage the client to cough
• D. Notify the provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy first. When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing increased secretions and labored breathing, suctioning the tracheostomy is the priority intervention to clear the airway and improve breathing. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may help with breathing but should come after ensuring the airway is clear. Encouraging the client to cough (Choice C) may not be effective in clearing secretions from the tracheostomy. Notifying the provider (Choice D) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

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