Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

• A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
• C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
• D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

2. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is in the diagnostic center and is scheduled to undergo a colonoscopy. Based on the information provided in the client's chart, which of the following pieces of data places this client at risk for colorectal cancer?

• A. Family history of asthma
• B. Elevated BMI
• C. History of travel
• D. High cholesterol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevated BMI is a significant risk factor for colorectal cancer. Excess body weight, especially around the waist, increases the risk of developing this type of cancer. Family history of asthma (Choice A) is not directly related to colorectal cancer risk. History of travel (Choice C) and high cholesterol (Choice D) are also not established risk factors for colorectal cancer.

3. A client who experienced an acute myocardial infarction expresses concern about fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote self-care?

• A. Ask family members to assist with all self-care tasks
• B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
• C. Instruct the client to remain in bed until fully rested
• D. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote self-care for a client who experienced an acute myocardial infarction and is experiencing fatigue. This approach helps the client regain independence while managing fatigue. Asking family members to assist with all self-care tasks (Choice A) may hinder the client's independence. Instructing the client to remain in bed until fully rested (Choice C) may lead to deconditioning and dependency. Assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client (Choice D) does not empower the client to regain independence or actively participate in self-care.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes.
• C. Place the client in the lithotomy position.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

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