Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment for an 18-year-old woman with severe vaginal bleeding?

• A. Covering the vagina with a trauma dressing.
• B. Administering high concentrations of oxygen.
• C. Placing sterile dressings into the vagina.
• D. Keeping her warm with blankets.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing sterile dressings into the vagina is not an appropriate treatment for severe vaginal bleeding. The correct approach involves applying pressure to the external vaginal area to control bleeding, covering the vagina with a trauma dressing to help with compression, administering high concentrations of oxygen to support oxygenation, and keeping the patient warm with blankets to prevent hypothermia. Placing sterile dressings into the vagina can introduce foreign material, increase the risk of infection, and obstruct proper wound management, making it an incorrect treatment option in this scenario.

2. A postpartum client who delivered a healthy newborn is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding would indicate a complication during the early postpartum period?

• A. Moderate lochia rubra
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Uterine contraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated blood pressure in the postpartum period may indicate the onset of preeclampsia, a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and sometimes swelling in the hands and face. If left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor blood pressure levels in postpartum clients to promptly address any signs of preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a complication during the early postpartum period. Moderate lochia rubra is a normal finding as it indicates the normal discharge of blood and tissue from the uterus after childbirth. Bradycardia, a slow heart rate, is not typically a concern in the absence of other symptoms or signs of distress. Uterine contractions are essential for involution and are expected in the postpartum period.

3. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

• A. Tepid sponging
• B. Oral hygiene
• C. Eye care
• D. N/A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

4. Following delivery of a newborn and placenta, you note that the mother has moderate vaginal bleeding. The mother is conscious and alert, and her vital signs are stable. Treatment for her should include:

• A. carefully packing the vagina with sterile dressings.
• B. massaging the uterus if signs of shock develop.
• C. treating her for shock and providing rapid transport.
• D. administering oxygen and massaging the uterus.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen and massaging the uterus are appropriate interventions to manage postpartum bleeding. Oxygen helps support tissue perfusion, and uterine massage can aid in uterine contraction, controlling bleeding. These actions are indicated when the mother experiences moderate vaginal bleeding post-delivery, as described in the scenario. Careful monitoring for signs of shock should continue while these interventions are implemented to ensure the mother's condition remains stable. Choices A and B are incorrect because packing the vagina with sterile dressings is not recommended for postpartum bleeding unless it is severe and immediate action is needed, while massaging the uterus is a proactive approach and should not be delayed until signs of shock develop. Choice C is also incorrect as rapid transport is not the primary intervention in this scenario where the mother is conscious, alert, and stable, and the focus should be on immediate management of the bleeding.

5. When you attempt to assess a 22-year-old woman who has been sexually assaulted, she orders you not to touch her. Your MOST appropriate initial action should be to:

• A. obtain a signed refusal and return to service.
• B. transport the patient without performing an assessment.
• C. explain to the patient that she must be examined.
• D. ask a female EMT to attempt to assess the patient.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of sexual assault, it's important to respect the patient's wishes and provide a female EMT to attempt the assessment if the patient prefers.

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