ATI LPN
Gerontology Nursing Questions And Answers PDF
1. A visiting nurse becomes concerned about a caregiver daughter. Although she does not seem overburdened, she may be drinking too much. The recycling bin contains many wine bottles, and visitors come to the home. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Direct the daughter to a local Alcoholics Anonymous chapter
- B. Ignore the signs unless they interfere with caregiving
- C. Find a new caregiver in the family or outside of it
- D. Assess the daughter's motivation and ability to provide care
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the daughter's motivation and ability to provide care. The nurse should not jump to conclusions based solely on the presence of wine bottles in the recycling bin. It is important to understand the daughter's overall capacity for caregiving and if her potential alcohol consumption is affecting her ability to provide care. Directing the daughter to Alcoholics Anonymous without a thorough assessment may not be appropriate at this stage. Ignoring the signs or immediately finding a new caregiver without understanding the daughter's situation may not address the underlying issue. Therefore, assessing the daughter's motivation and caregiving capabilities is the most appropriate initial step for the nurse.
2. A nurse in a long-term care facility is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who reports shortness of breath and increased fatigue. The nurse should report which of the following to the provider after hearing this sound?
- A. Fine crackles
- B. Rhonchi
- C. Wheezing
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fine crackles. Fine crackles suggest fluid in the lungs, which could indicate a serious respiratory issue like pulmonary edema. This sound should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched wheezing sounds often caused by secretions in the larger airways, wheezing (choice C) is a high-pitched whistling sound usually caused by narrowed airways, and stridor (choice D) is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration that indicates upper airway obstruction. While these sounds also require attention, fine crackles are more indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs, making them the priority for reporting in this scenario.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Zolpidem
- C. Morphine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.
4. A nurse is teaching a client with gestational diabetes about blood sugar control. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?
- A. I should test my blood sugar before each meal.
- B. I can eat any foods as long as I take my insulin.
- C. I should avoid all carbohydrates in my diet.
- D. I will only need to monitor my blood sugar at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should test my blood sugar before each meal.' Monitoring blood sugar before meals is crucial for managing gestational diabetes as it helps in understanding how different foods affect blood sugar levels and adjusting insulin doses accordingly. Choice B is incorrect as food choices should be monitored carefully, not just relying on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because while it is important to manage carbohydrate intake, completely avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as blood sugar monitoring throughout the day is essential, not just at bedtime, to ensure proper control and management of gestational diabetes.
5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99