Nursing Elites

1. A patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this therapy?

• A. CBT will help you understand and change your thought patterns.
• B. CBT will focus on exploring your childhood experiences.
• C. CBT will teach you relaxation techniques to use in social situations.
• D. CBT will help you avoid situations that cause anxiety.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a structured, short-term psychotherapy that aims to help patients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety. By understanding and altering these patterns, individuals can learn to manage and alleviate their symptoms effectively. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the purpose of CBT for social anxiety disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because while childhood experiences may be explored, the primary focus of CBT is on thought patterns and behaviors in the present. C is incorrect because although relaxation techniques may be a component of CBT, the primary goal is not just to teach relaxation but to address underlying cognitive and behavioral patterns. D is incorrect because the goal of CBT is not avoidance but rather to confront and manage anxiety-provoking situations.

2. When communicating with a client admitted for treatment of a substance use disorder, which of the following communication techniques should be identified as a barrier to therapeutic communication?

• A. Offering advice
• B. Reflecting
• C. Listening attentively
• D. Giving information

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering advice is a barrier to therapeutic communication because it can hinder the client's ability to explore their own solutions and feelings. It may come across as judgmental or dismissive of the client's experience, leading to a breakdown in trust and hindering the therapeutic relationship. Reflecting (choice B) is a helpful technique that involves paraphrasing or restating the client's words to show understanding. Listening attentively (choice C) is crucial for building rapport and demonstrating empathy. Giving information (choice D) is also important but should be done in a way that supports the client's understanding and autonomy, rather than directing their choices.

3. A charge nurse is conducting a class on therapeutic communication with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following aspects of communication should the nurse identify as a component of verbal communication?

• A. Personal space
• B. Posture
• C. Eye contact
• D. Intonation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verbal communication involves the use of words, tone, and pitch to convey messages. Intonation refers to the variation of pitch in speech, which can convey emotions, attitudes, and emphasize certain points. Therefore, intonation is a key component of verbal communication, making it the correct choice in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are aspects of nonverbal communication. Personal space, posture, and eye contact are important nonverbal cues that contribute to effective communication, but they are not components of verbal communication.

4. When developing a care plan for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which short-term goal is most appropriate?

• A. The patient will experience no episodes of anxiety within the next week.
• B. The patient will learn and practice relaxation techniques.
• C. The patient will avoid all anxiety-provoking situations.
• D. The patient will be medication-free within a month.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'The patient will learn and practice relaxation techniques,' is the most appropriate short-term goal for managing generalized anxiety disorder. Teaching relaxation techniques can help the patient develop coping mechanisms and reduce anxiety levels in the immediate future, making it a realistic and beneficial goal. Options A and C are not feasible in the short term as complete elimination of anxiety episodes or avoidance of all anxiety-provoking situations may not be achievable or practical within a week. Option D is not a suitable short-term goal as it overlooks the potential need for medication in managing generalized anxiety disorder.

5. A patient with a diagnosis of panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for when the patient starts this medication?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Gastrointestinal disturbances
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI, the nurse should monitor for gastrointestinal disturbances as a common side effect. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, or abdominal discomfort, especially at the beginning of treatment. Increased heart rate (Choice A) is not a common side effect of SSRIs; it is more commonly associated with medications like stimulants. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of SSRIs, as they are more likely to cause weight loss or appetite suppression. Dry mouth (Choice D) is a side effect seen more commonly with medications that have anticholinergic properties, not typically with SSRIs.

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