a patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive behavioral therapy cbt which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this the
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ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. A patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a structured, short-term psychotherapy that aims to help patients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety. By understanding and altering these patterns, individuals can learn to manage and alleviate their symptoms effectively. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the purpose of CBT for social anxiety disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because while childhood experiences may be explored, the primary focus of CBT is on thought patterns and behaviors in the present. C is incorrect because although relaxation techniques may be a component of CBT, the primary goal is not just to teach relaxation but to address underlying cognitive and behavioral patterns. D is incorrect because the goal of CBT is not avoidance but rather to confront and manage anxiety-provoking situations.

2. The nurse is providing medication education to a patient who has been prescribed lithium to stabilize mood. Which early signs and symptoms of toxicity should the nurse stress to the patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct early sign of lithium toxicity that the nurse should stress to the patient is an upset stomach for no apparent reason. Early signs of lithium toxicity often manifest as gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. This can serve as an important indicator for the patient to seek medical attention promptly to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increased attentiveness, getting up at night to urinate, and improved vision are not early signs of lithium toxicity. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the patient on recognizing gastrointestinal symptoms as potential indicators of toxicity.

3. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine. What is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluoxetine and should be monitored.

4. When discharging a patient with schizophrenia on risperidone, what is an important point to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Regular monitoring of blood levels is crucial for patients taking risperidone to ensure the medication is at therapeutic levels and to prevent potential toxicity. This monitoring helps healthcare providers adjust the dosage as needed to optimize treatment outcomes and minimize adverse effects.

5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the patient indicates effective understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because buspirone may take a few weeks to become effective in treating generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients should be aware of this delay and not expect immediate relief from their symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is typically taken regularly, not just when feeling anxious. Choice B is incorrect because the onset of action for buspirone is gradual, and patients should not expect immediate relief within a few days. Choice C is incorrect because buspirone is not considered addictive, unlike some other medications used for anxiety disorders.

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