a patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine what is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Mental Health Practice A 2023

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine. What is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluoxetine and should be monitored.

2. During an intake assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating a patient diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which question would be most appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question when assessing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is to inquire about repeating behaviors or thoughts. This is a hallmark feature of OCD, where individuals often engage in repetitive actions or mental rituals to alleviate anxiety or distress. This behavior distinguishes OCD from other mental health conditions such as generalized anxiety disorder (choice B), major depressive disorder (choice A), and panic disorder (choice D). Therefore, recognizing repetitive behaviors or thoughts helps in identifying the presence of OCD and tailoring appropriate interventions for the patient.

3. When discharging a patient with schizophrenia on risperidone, what is an important point to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Regular monitoring of blood levels is crucial for patients taking risperidone to ensure the medication is at therapeutic levels and to prevent potential toxicity. This monitoring helps healthcare providers adjust the dosage as needed to optimize treatment outcomes and minimize adverse effects.

4. A healthcare provider decides to put a client who has a psychotic disorder in seclusion overnight because the unit is very short-staffed, and the client frequently fights with other clients. The healthcare provider’s actions are an example of which of the following torts?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: False imprisonment. False imprisonment occurs when an individual is intentionally restricted in their freedom of movement without consent and without lawful justification. In this scenario, placing the client in seclusion overnight due to staffing shortages and behavioral issues constitutes false imprisonment as the client is confined against their will. Choice A, invasion of privacy, does not apply as the situation is about physical confinement, not privacy violation. Assault (choice C) involves the threat of harm, which is not the case here. Battery (choice D) refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person, which is not happening in this scenario.

5. What is the primary benefit of using exposure therapy for patients with phobias?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary benefit of using exposure therapy for patients with phobias is to gradually reduce the patient's fear and anxiety. Exposure therapy involves exposing the individual to the feared object or situation in a controlled manner to help them confront their fears and learn that the perceived threat is not as harmful as initially believed. Over time, repeated exposure can lead to a decrease in anxiety and fear responses, helping the individual manage and overcome their phobia. Choice A is incorrect because exposure therapy aims to reduce fear and anxiety, not necessarily eliminate the phobia completely. Choice C is incorrect as although relaxation techniques might be part of the therapy, the primary goal is fear reduction. Choice D is incorrect as exposure therapy typically involves gradual exposure rather than providing immediate relief.

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