a patient with a myocardial infarction mi is being treated with intravenous morphine what is the primary reason for administering morphine to this pat
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.

2. A 48-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The scenario describes a classic presentation of hypothyroidism, supported by the laboratory findings of high TSH and low free T4 levels. In hypothyroidism, the body's thyroid hormone levels are inadequate, leading to symptoms like fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. High TSH is a compensatory mechanism by the body to increase thyroid hormone production, which is deficient, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism.

3. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with heart failure, decreased pedal edema is a positive indicator of improved cardiac output and reduced fluid retention. Digoxin works by increasing the strength of the heart's contractions, leading to improved circulation and reduced symptoms of heart failure, such as edema. Monitoring for decreased pedal edema is essential to assess the effectiveness of digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and improved urine output are not specific indicators of digoxin's effectiveness in managing heart failure. Instead, the focus should be on improvements related to fluid retention and cardiac function, like decreased pedal edema.

5. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss is characteristic of Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations, along with the gastrointestinal symptoms, point towards Crohn's disease rather than ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, or diverticulitis.

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