Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult client who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning.
• B. Assist the client to a chair before administering the medication.
• C. Give the medication to the client with water rather than milk.
• D. Educate the client on how to take the medication at home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning. Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach before breakfast to ensure optimal absorption. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a chair is not directly related to the administration of alendronate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid taking alendronate with milk. Choice D is also incorrect as the priority at this moment is the correct administration of the medication in the hospital setting.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tamoxifen. The nurse should recognize that tamoxifen has which of the following therapeutic effects?

• A. Antiestrogenic
• B. Antimicrobial
• C. Androgenic
• D. Anti-inflammatory

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen medication used primarily in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer. It works by blocking the effects of estrogen in the breast tissue, thereby acting as an antiestrogenic agent. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choice B, antimicrobial, is incorrect as tamoxifen does not possess antimicrobial properties and is not used to treat infections. Choice C, androgenic, is incorrect as tamoxifen has antiestrogenic effects, not androgenic effects. Choice D, anti-inflammatory, is incorrect as tamoxifen's main therapeutic action is antiestrogenic rather than anti-inflammatory.

3. A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering it to a client who already has hypotension could exacerbate this condition. Therefore, hypotension is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem. Incorrect Choices: B) Tachycardia is not a contraindication for administering diltiazem in atrial fibrillation as it is commonly used to control the heart rate. C) Decreased level of consciousness may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. D) History of diuretic use is not a contraindication if the client is not currently experiencing hypotension.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about metoclopramide. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following conditions is a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Intestinal obstruction
• C. Glaucoma
• D. Low blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intestinal obstruction. Metoclopramide is contraindicated in clients with intestinal obstruction due to its prokinetic effects, which could exacerbate the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoclopramide is not contraindicated in hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, or low blood pressure. Hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, and low blood pressure are not specific contraindications for metoclopramide use, and this medication is commonly prescribed for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease and diabetic gastroparesis.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Respiratory depression can occur within 7 minutes after the morphine is administered.
• B. The morphine will peak within a few minutes.
• C. Withhold the morphine if the client has a respiratory rate less than 16/min.
• D. Administer the morphine over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because respiratory depression is a significant risk when administering morphine, and it can occur within 7 minutes after administration. This information is crucial for the nurse to recognize and respond promptly. Choice B is incorrect because the peak effect of morphine via IV bolus is typically reached within a few minutes, not specifically 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect because withholding morphine based solely on a respiratory rate less than 16/min may not be appropriate without considering other factors such as pain level, oxygen saturation, and overall respiratory status. Choice D is incorrect because administering morphine over 2 minutes may not prevent respiratory depression if it occurs rapidly after administration. Nurses should be vigilant for signs of respiratory depression regardless of the administration duration.

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