a nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous iv heparin infusion and has an aptt of 90 seconds which of the f
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypotension. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, especially after the first dose. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril is not typically associated with ecchymosis, jaundice, or hypokalemia as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor the client for signs of hypotension.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for amphotericin B. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Amphotericin B is known for its nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring kidney function is crucial to detect any signs of nephrotoxicity early. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hyperkalemia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with amphotericin B use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for nephrotoxicity.

4. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult client who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning. Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach before breakfast to ensure optimal absorption. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a chair is not directly related to the administration of alendronate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid taking alendronate with milk. Choice D is also incorrect as the priority at this moment is the correct administration of the medication in the hospital setting.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity of 1.035. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration as the kidneys conserve water in response to dehydration. Choice B, oliguria, refers to decreased urine output, which can be a sign of dehydration but is not specific to it. Choice C, increased urine concentration, is a general term and does not directly indicate dehydration. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030.

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