Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?

• A. Administer vitamin K
• B. Reduce the infusion rate
• C. Give the client a low-dose aspirin
• D. Request an INR

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.

2. A client with a seizure disorder has a new prescription for valproic acid. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor? (Select all that apply)

• A. PTT
• B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
• C. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Valproic acid can impact liver function and coagulation. Monitoring the Prothrombin Time (PTT), Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST), and Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is crucial. PTT is monitored to assess coagulation status, while AST and ALT are liver enzymes that indicate liver function. Monitoring these values helps detect any potential adverse effects of valproic acid on the liver and blood clotting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these laboratory values plays a critical role in evaluating the client's response to valproic acid therapy and detecting associated complications.

3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who reports fatigue and cold intolerance. The client has an increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level and a decreased total T3 and T4 level. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Methimazole
• B. Somatropin
• C. Levothyroxine
• D. Propylthiouracil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine is the correct answer. In this scenario, the client's elevated TSH and decreased T3 and T4 levels indicate hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough hormones. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroid hormone that is used to replace or supplement the body's naturally produced thyroid hormones. Methimazole and Propylthiouracil are used to treat hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Somatropin is a growth hormone used to treat growth hormone deficiency and other conditions unrelated to thyroid disorders.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take hydrochlorothiazide as needed for edema.
• B. Check your weight once weekly.
• C. Take the hydrochlorothiazide on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the hydrochlorothiazide in the morning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning. This medication is usually advised to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide should be taken daily as prescribed, not as needed for edema. Option B is incorrect as monitoring weight weekly may not be specifically related to hydrochlorothiazide therapy. Option C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number).

• A. 21 gtt/min
• B. 20 gtt/min
• C. 25 gtt/min
• D. 18 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV infusion rate in gtt/min: 1000 mL / 480 min × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83 ≈ 21 gtt/min. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B (20 gtt/min) is incorrect because the calculation results in 20.83 gtt/min, rounded to 21. Choices C (25 gtt/min) and D (18 gtt/min) are incorrect as they are not the closest whole number approximation to the calculated value.

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