Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?

• A. Administer vitamin K
• B. Reduce the infusion rate
• C. Give the client a low-dose aspirin
• D. Request an INR

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.

2. A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering it to a client who already has hypotension could exacerbate this condition. Therefore, hypotension is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem. Incorrect Choices: B) Tachycardia is not a contraindication for administering diltiazem in atrial fibrillation as it is commonly used to control the heart rate. C) Decreased level of consciousness may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. D) History of diuretic use is not a contraindication if the client is not currently experiencing hypotension.

3. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
• B. Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin shortens the course of therapy.
• C. The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin.
• D. Ciprofloxacin treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)

• A. 0.5 mL
• B. 0.005 mL
• C. 0.05 mL
• D. 5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, set up a proportion: 5 mg / 1 mL = 2.5 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to find X: 5 * X = 2.5 * 1, X = 2.5 / 5 = 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL. Choice B, 0.005 mL, is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculated result. Choice C, 0.05 mL, is incorrect as it is ten times the correct value. Choice D, 5 mL, is incorrect as it represents the total volume of the entire vial, not the amount needed for the specific dose.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)

• A. 20 mg
• B. 15 mg
• C. 10 mg
• D. 30 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dosage per dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 = 10 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dosage: 4 mg × 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since this total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, the nurse should administer 20 mg per dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice B (15 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight conversion and dosage calculation. Choice C (10 mg) is incorrect as it only considers the weight conversion but doesn't multiply it by the dosage. Choice D (30 mg) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage by not dividing the total daily dose into 2 equal parts.

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