a nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous iv heparin infusion and has an aptt of 90 seconds which of the f
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.

2. A client with gout is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Fever can indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, known as allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome, which can be severe and even life-threatening. Nausea and drowsiness are common side effects of allopurinol but not necessarily indications to discontinue the medication. Metallic taste is not typically associated with allopurinol use. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize to the client the importance of reporting any signs of fever promptly for further evaluation and management.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tamoxifen. The nurse should recognize that tamoxifen has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen medication used primarily in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer. It works by blocking the effects of estrogen in the breast tissue, thereby acting as an antiestrogenic agent. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choice B, antimicrobial, is incorrect as tamoxifen does not possess antimicrobial properties and is not used to treat infections. Choice C, androgenic, is incorrect as tamoxifen has antiestrogenic effects, not androgenic effects. Choice D, anti-inflammatory, is incorrect as tamoxifen's main therapeutic action is antiestrogenic rather than anti-inflammatory.

4. When administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client experiencing anaphylaxis, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when administering subcutaneous epinephrine for anaphylaxis is tachycardia. Epinephrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely due to the vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine. Hyperthermia (Choice B) and hypoglycemia (Choice C) are not commonly associated with epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.

5. A nurse is administering insulin glulisine 10 units subcutaneously at 0730 to an adolescent client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should anticipate the onset of action of the insulin at which of the following times?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Insulin glulisine has a rapid onset of action, typically around 15 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should expect the onset around 0745. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the expected onset time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the typical onset time of insulin glulisine.

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