a nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking furosemide about dietary modifications which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor

1. A client is to start taking furosemide and is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which helps counter the potassium-depleting effects of furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so including potassium-rich foods like bananas in the diet can help maintain a healthy potassium level. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the potassium needs associated with furosemide therapy and are not the most appropriate recommendations in this context.

2. When caring for the client diagnosed with delirium, which condition is the most important for the nurse to investigate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, the most important condition for the nurse to investigate is prescription drug intoxication. Delirium in older adults is commonly caused by medication side effects or interactions. Investigating prescription drug intoxication is crucial as it can be a reversible cause of delirium. While cancer, impaired hearing, and heart failure are important considerations in overall care, prescription drug intoxication takes precedence in cases of delirium.

3. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

4. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority because these symptoms can exacerbate dementia and lead to further complications. Restlessness and agitation can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, which should be promptly assessed and managed to improve the client's quality of life. Decreased respiratory rate, wandering during the night, and incontinence are important to address but do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being compared to the potential effects of unmanaged restlessness and agitation in dementia.

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