ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being educated by a healthcare professional about monitoring for adverse effects. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. 'I should use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth.'
- B. 'I will double my dose if I miss one.'
- C. 'I should increase my intake of leafy green vegetables.'
- D. 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.' This statement indicates a good understanding of the teaching regarding warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding. Contacting the doctor if unusual bleeding or bruising is noticed is essential as it can help prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a soft toothbrush is generally recommended for oral hygiene but is not directly related to monitoring for adverse effects of warfarin. Doubling the dose of warfarin if a dose is missed is dangerous and can increase the risk of bleeding. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness as they contain vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's anticoagulant effects.
2. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely by the nurse?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent adverse effects associated with high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium (choice A) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum glucose (choice D) are also not the primary laboratory values to monitor when a client is prescribed spironolactone for heart failure.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Dry cough
- C. Tremors
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of enalapril that can indicate the development of angioedema or potentially life-threatening angioedema. An onset of dry cough should be reported to the provider promptly as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Frequent urination, tremors, and dizziness are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be of immediate concern compared to a dry cough in this context.
4. A client has a new prescription for amitriptyline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is prescribed amitriptyline, it is important to instruct them to take the medication with a full glass of water. This instruction helps prevent esophageal irritation, as amitriptyline can be harsh on the esophagus. Option C is the correct choice. Option A, taking the medication in the morning, is not specific to amitriptyline and can vary depending on the individual's condition. Option B, avoiding grapefruit juice, is a general precaution for many medications but not specifically related to amitriptyline. Option D, monitoring for signs of weight gain, is not a direct instruction for taking the medication itself and may not be a common side effect of amitriptyline.
5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Apical pulse
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Pupil reaction to light
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a beta blocker, it is crucial to check the apical pulse. Beta blockers have the potential to slow down the heart rate, making it essential to assess the pulse rate to ensure it is within the safe range before giving the medication. Checking the serum potassium level (choice A) is important when administering certain medications, but it is not specifically required before giving a beta blocker. Oxygen saturation (choice C) and pupil reaction to light (choice D) are not directly related to monitoring parameters for beta blocker administration.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access