a nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus about dietary management which of the following statements should the a nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus about dietary management which of the following statements should the
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1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You should monitor your carbohydrate intake.' Monitoring carbohydrate intake is essential for managing blood glucose levels in clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. By monitoring carbohydrate intake, individuals can make informed decisions about their dietary choices and better control their blood sugar levels. Avoiding foods that contain carbohydrates (choice A) is not advisable as carbohydrates are an essential nutrient that can be consumed in moderation. Decreasing intake of high-fiber foods (choice B) is not recommended as fiber is beneficial for glycemic control and overall health. Increasing intake of high-protein foods (choice C) is not the primary focus of dietary management for type 2 diabetes; while protein is important, it is more crucial to monitor carbohydrate intake for effective blood sugar management.

2. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.

3. When caring for a client with anorexia nervosa, which of the following examples demonstrates the nurse’s use of interpersonal communication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interpersonal communication involves engaging in a conversation where the nurse asks the client about their personal body image perception. This demonstrates a direct interaction aimed at understanding the client's feelings and thoughts, which is essential in providing holistic care to individuals with anorexia nervosa. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve the nurse-client interaction that characterizes interpersonal communication. A is more related to team communication, B focuses on the nurse's personal reflection, and D pertains to delivering educational content to a group rather than engaging in a one-on-one conversation with a client.

4. What is the most caring response the student can make in this situation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing to ask the other students why they think the instructor is so picky is a caring response as it opens up a constructive conversation. This approach can help shift the focus from making fun of the instructor to understanding the reasons behind their behavior, fostering empathy, and potentially promoting a more respectful environment. Option A may address the behavior but does not promote understanding. Option B focuses on shaming, which may escalate the situation. Option D diverts attention from the issue and may perpetuate a negative atmosphere.

5. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

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