Nursing Elites

1. A client newly diagnosed with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about preventing complications. Which food should the nurse recommend?

• A. Fried chicken
• B. Whole milk
• C. Oatmeal
• D. Bacon

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oatmeal is an excellent recommendation for clients with osteoporosis due to its richness in fiber and nutrients, making it a heart-healthy and bone-friendly choice. Fried chicken (Choice A) is high in unhealthy fats and lacks the nutrients needed for bone health. Whole milk (Choice B) contains calcium but can be high in saturated fats, which may not be the best choice for individuals with osteoporosis. Bacon (Choice D) is high in saturated fats and sodium, which can have negative effects on bone health and overall well-being.

2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation and notes that the client has gained 5 pounds in one week. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?

• A. Preeclampsia
• B. Gestational diabetes
• C. Anemia
• D. Placenta previa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preeclampsia. Rapid weight gain, especially in the third trimester, can be a sign of preeclampsia, a condition characterized by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria. This requires immediate medical attention. Choice B, Gestational diabetes, is incorrect because rapid weight gain is not a typical symptom of gestational diabetes. Choice C, Anemia, is incorrect as weight gain is not a common sign of anemia in pregnancy. Choice D, Placenta previa, is also incorrect because weight gain is not a typical symptom of this condition, which involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix.

3. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

4. A client prescribed allopurinol for gout is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Drink at least 2 liters of water per day.
• C. Avoid foods high in purines.
• D. Increase your dietary intake of calcium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink at least 2 liters of water per day.' Clients taking allopurinol should be instructed to drink plenty of water to prevent kidney stones, a potential side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because allopurinol is usually taken without regard to meals. Option C is not directly related to the teaching about allopurinol, as it pertains more to dietary management of gout. Option D is also unrelated to allopurinol use for gout.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of fluid overload. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Edema
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Edema is a common sign of fluid overload. When the body retains more fluid than it excretes, it can lead to edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues. Weight gain, not weight loss, is typically associated with fluid overload due to the retained fluids. Decreased blood pressure is more commonly associated with dehydration rather than fluid overload. Increased urine output is a sign of the body trying to eliminate excess fluids, which is contrary to the signs of fluid overload.

Similar Questions