Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Glucose
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a newly-admitted infant who is 3 months old and has diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Poor appetite
• C. Irritability
• D. Decreased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irritability in infants can indicate worsening dehydration, which needs to be reported. Weight gain (Choice A) would be a positive finding, indicating adequate fluid intake. Poor appetite (Choice B) is common with diarrhea but not as concerning as irritability. Decreased urination (Choice D) can also be a sign of dehydration, but irritability is more specific to worsening dehydration in this case.

4. What are key signs of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in older adults?

• A. Confusion and increased temperature
• B. Painful urination and frequent urination
• C. Dizziness and headache
• D. Back pain and fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In older adults, key signs of a UTI often include confusion and increased temperature. Confusion is a common symptom in the elderly when they have a UTI, and an increase in body temperature can indicate an infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while painful urination and frequent urination are common UTI symptoms in general, they may not be as prominent in older adults. Dizziness, headache, back pain, and fever can be associated with other conditions but are not typically key signs of a UTI in older adults.

5. A patient is being educated about a clear liquid diet. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?

• A. Lemon-lime sports drinks
• B. Ginger ale
• C. Black coffee
• D. Orange sherbet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orange sherbet. A clear liquid diet consists of liquids that are transparent and easily digestible. Orange sherbet, being a frozen dessert, is not a clear liquid and should be avoided. Choices A, B, and C are all acceptable in a clear liquid diet. Lemon-lime sports drinks, ginger ale, and black coffee are clear liquids that can be included in the diet as they are transparent and leave little residue in the gastrointestinal tract, unlike orange sherbet.

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