Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?

• A. WBC count 2,900 /mm3.
• B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dl.
• C. Hgb 14 g/dl.
• D. Heart rate 58/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 indicates leukopenia, which is a serious side effect of clozapine and contraindicates its use. Leukopenia is a significant concern with clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Monitoring the WBC count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. The other options (B, C, and D) are within normal ranges and not contraindications for administering clozapine.

2. What is the priority nursing action for a client with dehydration?

• A. Administer oral fluids
• B. Monitor electrolyte levels
• C. Administer antiemetics as needed
• D. Encourage bed rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels. Dehydration can cause imbalances in electrolytes such as sodium and potassium, affecting essential bodily functions. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to promptly identify and correct any imbalances. While administering oral fluids (Choice A) is vital in treating dehydration, monitoring electrolyte levels takes precedence as it directly addresses the underlying imbalance. Administering antiemetics (Choice C) may be necessary for nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over electrolyte monitoring. Encouraging bed rest (Choice D) can conserve energy but is not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels to prevent complications related to electrolyte imbalances.

3. What are the key signs of hyperglycemia?

• A. Increased thirst and frequent urination
• B. Decreased appetite and low blood pressure
• C. Weight loss and nausea
• D. Increased sweating and confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased thirst and frequent urination. These are classic signs of hyperglycemia, indicating elevated blood sugar levels. Choice B is incorrect as hyperglycemia usually presents with increased appetite rather than decreased appetite and low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as weight loss is more commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes rather than hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as increased sweating and confusion are not typical signs of hyperglycemia.

4. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?

• A. When the client is hypotensive
• B. When the client is irritable
• C. When the client is flushed
• D. When the client is bradycardic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.

5. A client is postoperative following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in preventing dislocation of the prosthesis?

• A. Cross your legs at the knees
• B. Avoid bending your hip more than 90 degrees
• C. Sit with your legs elevated
• D. Avoid placing a pillow under your knees

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent dislocation of the prosthesis after hip replacement surgery, it is essential to avoid bending the hip more than 90 degrees. This precaution helps maintain the stability of the hip joint and reduces the risk of prosthesis dislocation. Crossing legs at the knees (Choice A) can increase pressure on the hip joint, leading to instability. Sitting with legs elevated (Choice C) and avoiding placing a pillow under the knees (Choice D) do not directly address the risk of prosthesis dislocation.

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