Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught about taking warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. If I forget to take a dose, I can take it later on the same day.
• C. I will skip my dose if I forget to take it.
• D. I can take an additional dose if I miss one.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because taking warfarin later on the same day if a dose is missed helps maintain therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to fluctuations in warfarin levels. Choice D is incorrect as taking an additional dose can increase the risk of bleeding.

2. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor daily fluid intake
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels
• C. Measure intake and output
• D. Administer insulin as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood glucose levels.' When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which has a high glucose content, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels closely to prevent hyperglycemia. Monitoring daily fluid intake (Choice A) is important in other contexts but is not directly related to TPN administration. Measuring intake and output (Choice C) is a general nursing intervention that is relevant for assessing fluid balance but is not specific to TPN administration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice D) may be necessary for clients with hyperglycemia, but this intervention is based on the blood glucose monitoring results and the healthcare provider's orders, not a standard intervention for all clients receiving TPN.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Chills
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Low back pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low back pain is a classic sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction and requires immediate intervention. Chills are more commonly associated with a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Hypertension is not a common finding in a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

4. What are the key signs of hyperkalemia and how should it be treated?

• A. Elevated potassium levels, muscle weakness; administer calcium gluconate
• B. Decreased potassium levels, confusion; administer potassium chloride
• C. Elevated sodium levels, bradycardia; administer sodium bicarbonate
• D. Low sodium levels, muscle cramps; administer sodium chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hyperkalemia include elevated potassium levels and muscle weakness. The treatment involves administering calcium gluconate to help stabilize the heart. Choice B is incorrect as hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated, not decreased, potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not involve elevated sodium levels, and the treatment is not sodium bicarbonate. Choice D is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not lead to low sodium levels, and sodium chloride is not the treatment for hyperkalemia.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

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