Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught about taking warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. If I forget to take a dose, I can take it later on the same day.
• C. I will skip my dose if I forget to take it.
• D. I can take an additional dose if I miss one.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because taking warfarin later on the same day if a dose is missed helps maintain therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to fluctuations in warfarin levels. Choice D is incorrect as taking an additional dose can increase the risk of bleeding.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with a tracheostomy?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection and ensure airway patency
• B. Suction airway secretions and provide humidified air
• C. Inspect stoma site and clean with saline
• D. Provide education on tracheostomy care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Monitoring for signs of infection and ensuring airway patency is crucial in managing a patient with a tracheostomy. This involves observing for redness, swelling, or discharge at the stoma site, as well as assessing for any signs of respiratory distress. Choice B, suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified air, is important for maintaining airway hygiene but may not be the initial assessment priority. Choice C, inspecting the stoma site and cleaning with saline, is part of routine tracheostomy care but does not address immediate assessment and management needs. Choice D, providing education on tracheostomy care, is valuable but not the primary action required in the assessment and management of a patient with a tracheostomy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

4. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetic medication before meals
• B. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals
• C. Instruct the client to avoid eating during treatment
• D. Provide the client with cold beverages during meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetic medication before meals. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting, administering antiemetic medication before meals is a priority intervention to help reduce nausea associated with chemotherapy. This proactive approach can prevent or minimize the symptoms, improving the client's quality of life during treatment. Choice B is incorrect because while encouraging the client to eat small, frequent meals can be helpful, administering antiemetic medication is the priority to address the immediate symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding eating during treatment may lead to nutritional deficits, and choice D is incorrect because providing cold beverages during meals may not effectively address the nausea and vomiting symptoms.

5. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?

• A. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet
• B. Age, gender, and family history
• C. Smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension
• D. Frequent exercise and low-carbohydrate diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

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