ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?
- A. Use a condom with sexual intercourse
- B. Avoid bubble bath solution when taking a tub bath
- C. Wipe from front to back when performing perineal hygiene
- D. Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Keeping a daily record of fetal kick counts is crucial for clients with premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation as it helps monitor fetal well-being. This activity enables the client to assess the frequency and strength of fetal movements, which can provide important information about the fetus' health and development. Other options such as using a condom with sexual intercourse, avoiding bubble bath solution, and wiping from front to back are important for general perinatal care but are not specifically related to managing premature rupture of membranes.
2. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Observe for uterine contractions.
- C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
- D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.
3. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who has a prescription for magnesium sulfate. The provider should recognize that which of the following are contraindications for the use of this medication? (Select all that apply)
- A. Fetal distress
- B. Cervical dilation greater than 6 cm
- C. Vaginal bleeding
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Magnesium sulfate should not be used in cases of fetal distress, vaginal bleeding, or cervical dilation greater than 6 cm. These conditions can be exacerbated by the administration of magnesium sulfate, leading to further complications for the client. Choice A, fetal distress, is a contraindication because magnesium sulfate can further affect the fetal heart rate. Choice B, cervical dilation greater than 6 cm, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can potentially suppress uterine contractions, prolonging labor. Choice C, vaginal bleeding, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can further increase bleeding tendencies.
4. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
- A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
- B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
- C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
- D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.
5. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased platelet count
- B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. Decreased megakaryocytes
- D. Increased WBC
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access