Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed simvastatin. Which instruction should the nurse provide during teaching?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
• D. Monitor your pulse daily while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of toxicity when taken with simvastatin. Instructing the client to avoid grapefruit juice helps prevent this interaction. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration for simvastatin is usually in the evening. Choice C is unrelated to simvastatin therapy. Choice D is not necessary for monitoring while taking simvastatin.

2. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize for a client with dementia who is at risk of falls?

• A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
• B. Use a bed exit alarm system to notify staff when the client attempts to leave the bed
• C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
• D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using a bed exit alarm system is a non-restrictive intervention that alerts staff when the client tries to leave the bed, promoting safety and preventing falls. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can have adverse effects and should be avoided whenever possible. Choice C is not the priority for a client at risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls without proper supervision. Choice D is also not recommended as raising all four side rails can lead to restraint and should be used cautiously, if at all. Therefore, the best option is to use a bed exit alarm system to ensure the client's safety while allowing some freedom of movement.

3. A nurse is caring for a client post-abdominal surgery who has an NG tube. The client reports nausea and a decrease in gastric output. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Turn the client onto their left side
• B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
• C. Increase the suction pressure to relieve the blockage
• D. Remove the NG tube and replace it with a new one

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water first. This action helps to relieve blockages that may be causing the decrease in gastric output and nausea. Turning the client onto their left side may not directly address the issue with the NG tube. Increasing the suction pressure can further exacerbate the problem and should not be done without assessing the situation first. Removing the NG tube and replacing it with a new one is a more invasive step that should be considered only if other measures are unsuccessful.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

5. Which symptom would indicate a complication after a subdural hematoma?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. High-pitched cry
• D. Bulging posterior fontanelle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bulging posterior fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in infants, not a common symptom after a subdural hematoma. In the context of a subdural hematoma, a decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of a complication as it can be a sign of worsening brain function due to increased pressure on the brain from the collection of blood in the subdural space. Increased appetite and high-pitched cry are not typically associated with complications of a subdural hematoma.

Similar Questions