ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who is recovering from acute pancreatitis. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Consume a low-fat diet.
- B. Limit your carbohydrate intake.
- C. Increase your protein intake.
- D. Take acetaminophen for pain management.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients recovering from acute pancreatitis should consume a low-fat diet to reduce the workload on the pancreas and prevent exacerbation. This diet helps in minimizing the stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion, which aids in the recovery process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as limiting carbohydrate intake or increasing protein intake may not be necessary for acute pancreatitis, and acetaminophen may not be the first-line choice for pain management in this condition.
2. A client who is immobile needs interventions to prevent contractures. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?
- A. Aligning a trochanter wedge between the client's legs.
- B. Placing a towel roll under the client's neck.
- C. Applying an orthotic to the client's foot.
- D. Positioning a pillow under the client's knees.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying an orthotic to the client's foot is the appropriate intervention to prevent contractures in an immobile client. An orthotic helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the development of contractures by keeping the foot in the correct position. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a trochanter wedge, towel roll under the neck, and pillow under the knees are not specific interventions for preventing contractures in an immobile client.
3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.
4. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?
- A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
- B. Braden scale score of 20
- C. Norton scale score of 18
- D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.
5. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.
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