ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Assist the client to a supine position
- C. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours
- D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice B) is not directly related to managing bacterial meningitis. Performing a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours (Choice C) may be important to assess the client's neurological status but is not the priority intervention in preventing the spread of infection. Recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family (Choice D) is not a standard practice in the care of a patient with bacterial meningitis.
2. A client has a prescription for sertraline to treat depression. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication treatment plan?
- A. I will start feeling better immediately after starting the medication
- B. I can expect to urinate frequently while on this medication
- C. I understand I may experience difficulty sleeping on this medication
- D. I should decrease my sodium intake while on this medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Difficulty sleeping is a common side effect of sertraline, an SSRI used to treat depression. Clients should be educated to expect this, especially during the early stages of treatment. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline may take a few weeks to show its full effect. Choice B is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is unrelated to the side effects or management of sertraline.
3. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause a persistent cough
- B. It is a calcium channel blocker
- C. It is safe during pregnancy
- D. It should be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.
4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. INR levels
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Paradoxical pulse
- B. Dependent edema
- C. Pericardial friction rub
- D. Substernal chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A paradoxical pulse is a sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis that requires immediate intervention. It results from decreased cardiac output due to increased pressure in the pericardial sac. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely treatment to prevent further deterioration. Dependent edema and substernal chest pain are common in pericarditis but are not as urgent as a paradoxical pulse. A pericardial friction rub is a classic finding in pericarditis and indicates inflammation but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse.
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