Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Initiate droplet precautions
• B. Assist the client to a supine position
• C. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours
• D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice B) is not directly related to managing bacterial meningitis. Performing a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours (Choice C) may be important to assess the client's neurological status but is not the priority intervention in preventing the spread of infection. Recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family (Choice D) is not a standard practice in the care of a patient with bacterial meningitis.

2. A nurse is caring for a newborn diagnosed with necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to implement?

• A. Withhold oral feedings
• B. Measure abdominal girth
• C. Position the newborn supine
• D. Apply cold compresses to the abdomen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Measuring abdominal girth is crucial in monitoring for signs of abdominal distension, which is a key indicator of worsening necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). It helps in assessing the progression of the condition. Positioning the newborn supine, as in choice C, can help relieve pressure on the abdomen but does not directly monitor the condition. Applying cold compresses, as in choice D, is not recommended for NEC as it can constrict blood vessels and potentially worsen the condition. Withholding oral feedings, as in choice A, is also important to rest the bowel and prevent further complications, but measuring abdominal girth is more directly related to monitoring the progression of NEC.

3. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Flushed face
• C. Hypotension
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a key indicator of decreased cardiac output, especially in the context of postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to significant fluid volume loss and compromise perfusion. In this scenario, the excessive vaginal bleeding could lead to hypovolemia, resulting in decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output in this scenario, as the body often compensates for decreased cardiac output by increasing heart rate. A flushed face (choice B) may indicate vasodilation but is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a specific indicator of decreased cardiac output in this context.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of losartan. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker used to lower blood pressure. Assessing the patient's blood pressure before administering losartan is crucial to ensure it is not already too low, which could lead to hypotension. Assessing heart rate (choice B) is important but not the priority when administering losartan. Serum potassium levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments, but they are not the primary concern before administering losartan.

5. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?

• A. Gentamicin
• B. Clindamycin
• C. Piperacillin
• D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.

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