ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Massage the ulcer
- B. Apply a heating pad
- C. Reposition the client every 2 hours
- D. Use alcohol-based cleansers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is a crucial intervention in the management of pressure ulcers. This action helps redistribute pressure, reducing the risk of further skin breakdown and promoting wound healing. Massaging the ulcer can cause further damage to the skin and underlying tissues. Applying a heating pad can increase the risk of skin breakdown and should be avoided. Alcohol-based cleansers are too harsh for pressure ulcers and can irritate the skin, potentially delaying healing.
2. When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, which of the following actions should the nurse take when speaking with the client?
- A. Speak in a high-pitched voice.
- B. Exaggerate lip movements.
- C. Face the client when speaking.
- D. Use a monotone voice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, it is essential for the nurse to face the client when speaking. By facing the client, the nurse allows the individual to read lips and see facial expressions, which can significantly improve communication effectiveness. This approach facilitates better understanding and helps the client feel more connected during interactions. Speaking in a high-pitched voice (Choice A) is not recommended as it may distort speech sounds. Exaggerating lip movements (Choice B) can be patronizing and ineffective. Using a monotone voice (Choice D) lacks intonation that helps convey meaning and emotions in speech, making it harder for the client to understand.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decreased creatinine
- C. Increased potassium
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.
4. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- B. Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.' When managing hypertension, reducing the intake of sodium-rich foods is essential. Excessive sodium can contribute to increased blood pressure, which is why limiting its consumption is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake would exacerbate hypertension, avoiding lactose is unrelated to managing hypertension, and increasing dairy product intake does not specifically address the issue of sodium intake in hypertension management.
5. A client has major fecal incontinence and reports irritation in the perianal area. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a fecal collection system
- B. Apply a barrier cream
- C. Cleanse and dry the area
- D. Check the client's perineum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client with major fecal incontinence reports irritation in the perianal area, the nurse's initial action should be to assess the client's perineum to gather more information. By checking the perineum, the nurse can identify the extent and nature of the irritation, allowing for appropriate interventions to be initiated. This assessment is crucial in developing a comprehensive care plan and addressing the client's immediate needs effectively. Applying the nursing process priority-setting framework helps in planning care and prioritizing nursing actions, making assessment the initial step in this scenario. Applying a fecal collection system (choice A) would be premature without assessing the perineal area first. Similarly, applying a barrier cream (choice B) or cleansing and drying the area (choice C) should follow the assessment to ensure appropriate interventions are chosen based on the assessment findings.
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