a nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep the nurse should plan to monitor the clien
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a group of new parents about medications. The nurse should include that aspirin is contraindicated for children who have a viral infection due to the risk of developing which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reye's syndrome. Aspirin use in children with viral infections has been associated with Reye's syndrome, a serious condition that causes swelling in the liver and brain. Visual disturbances (choice B) are not typically associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Diabetes mellitus (choice C) and Wilms' tumor (choice D) are not adverse effects of aspirin use in this context.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration. In this case, a urine specific gravity of 1.035 suggests concentrated urine, indicating dehydration. Choices B, C, and D have values that are not within the normal range for urine specific gravity and do not indicate dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 444, 2000, or 1111.1 are not physiologically possible values and are therefore incorrect.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hours. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume of heparin to administer per dose, divide the prescribed dose (8,000 units) by the concentration of heparin available (10,000 units/mL). 8000 units / 10000 units/mL = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL per dose. Choice B, 0.9 mL, is incorrect as the correct calculation results in 0.8 mL. Choices C and D are significantly higher and incorrect, indicating an inaccurate calculation.

5. A nurse is administering subcutaneous heparin to a client who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is best absorbed and less likely to cause hematomas when administered into subcutaneous tissue, specifically the abdomen, which is a common site for subcutaneous injections. Injecting heparin into a muscle (Choice B) is incorrect as it should be administered subcutaneously. Massaging the site after administering the medication (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can cause tissue damage or bruising. Using a 22-gauge needle (Choice D) is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of heparin; a smaller needle size such as 25-26 gauge is preferred for subcutaneous administration.

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