ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Ecchymosis
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.
2. A client with chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Reduces blood pressure
- B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
- C. Promotes RBC production
- D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney failure. This helps in increasing the hemoglobin levels and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as epoetin alfa does not have direct effects on reducing blood pressure, inhibiting clotting of the fistula, or stimulating the growth of neutrophils.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Allergic response
- B. Superinfection
- C. Renal toxicity
- D. Hepatotoxicity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Candidiasis is a type of superinfection that can occur when antibiotics, like tetracycline, disrupt the normal flora, allowing overgrowth of fungi. Option A, allergic response, is incorrect because candidiasis is not typically an allergic reaction. Option C, renal toxicity, and option D, hepatotoxicity, are incorrect as they refer to adverse effects on the kidneys and liver, respectively, which are not directly related to the development of candidiasis.
4. A nurse is administering insulin glulisine 10 units subcutaneously at 0730 to an adolescent client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should anticipate the onset of action of the insulin at which of the following times?
- A. 0745
- B. 0700
- C. 0645
- D. 0457
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glulisine has a rapid onset of action, typically around 15 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should expect the onset around 0745. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the expected onset time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the typical onset time of insulin glulisine.
5. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
- B. Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin shortens the course of therapy.
- C. The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin.
- D. Ciprofloxacin treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.
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