ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Ecchymosis
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)
- A. 33 gtt/min
- B. 66 gtt/min
- C. 10 gtt/min
- D. 14 gtt/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.
3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed long-term prednisone therapy. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?
- A. Stress fractures
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Gingival ulcerations
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stress fractures. Long-term prednisone therapy can lead to osteoporosis, which increases the risk of stress fractures. Option B, orthostatic hypotension, is not a common adverse effect associated with prednisone use. Option C, gingival ulcerations, is more commonly associated with conditions like periodontal disease or poor oral hygiene rather than prednisone therapy. Option D, weight loss, is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common due to prednisone's impact on metabolism.
4. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
- B. Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin shortens the course of therapy.
- C. The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin.
- D. Ciprofloxacin treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.
5. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include that a severe allergy to which of the following medications is a contraindication to ceftriaxone?
- A. Gentamicin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Piperacillin
- D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ceftriaxone, a cephalosporin antibiotic, has a cross-sensitivity with penicillin antibiotics like piperacillin. Therefore, a severe allergy to penicillin or penicillin-related antibiotics would be a contraindication to ceftriaxone. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not associated with a known cross-sensitivity with ceftriaxone.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access