Nursing Elites

1. A client is being cared for by a nurse with dehydration. What is the priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetics to reduce nausea
• B. Encourage the client to drink oral rehydration solutions
• C. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte levels
• D. Administer intravenous fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte levels. When caring for a client with dehydration, it is crucial to assess and monitor their fluid and electrolyte status to guide appropriate interventions. Administering antiemetics may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink oral rehydration solutions is beneficial but may not be the immediate priority if the client is severely dehydrated. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary based on the assessment of fluid and electrolyte levels, making monitoring these levels the priority intervention.

2. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?

• A. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet
• B. Age, gender, and family history
• C. Smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension
• D. Frequent exercise and low-carbohydrate diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

3. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

4. A client is concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction. What is the best strategy the nurse can suggest to promote independence in self-care?

• A. Encourage the client to rest and let the healthcare team take over self-care tasks
• B. Instruct the client to gradually resume self-care tasks, with rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy to promote independence in self-care for a client concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction is to instruct the client to gradually resume self-care tasks, with rest periods. This approach allows the client to regain independence without overexerting. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to rest completely and letting the healthcare team take over self-care tasks may hinder independence. Choice C is incorrect as assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks does not promote the client's independence. Choice D is not the best option as the primary focus should be on empowering the client to perform self-care tasks independently.

5. Which of the following is an early sign that suctioning is required for a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Irritability
• C. Confusion
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is necessary to clear the airway in a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions build up in the tracheostomy tube, the client may become irritable due to the discomfort and the compromised airway. Bradycardia, confusion, and hypotension are not typically early signs that suctioning is required. Bradycardia may occur if the airway becomes severely compromised, confusion may be a late sign of hypoxia, and hypotension is not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy.

Similar Questions