Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with an NG tube who is experiencing nausea and decreased gastric secretions. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Increase the suction pressure
• B. Turn the client onto their side
• C. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
• D. Replace the NG tube with a new one

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to replace the NG tube with a new one. When a client with an NG tube experiences nausea and decreased gastric secretions, it indicates a possible problem with the tube itself. Replacing the tube ensures proper functioning and can alleviate the symptoms. Increasing the suction pressure (Choice A) can worsen the client's condition. Turning the client onto their side (Choice B) may be helpful in some situations but does not address the underlying issue. Irrigating the NG tube with sterile water (Choice C) is not the priority and may not resolve the problem.

2. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing acute chest pain?

• A. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin
• B. Provide oxygen
• C. Call for emergency assistance
• D. Reassure the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient experiencing acute chest pain, the initial response should include administering prescribed nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart, which can be beneficial in managing chest pain related to cardiac issues. Providing oxygen can also be helpful to support oxygenation. However, the priority in this scenario is to address the potential cardiac cause by administering nitroglycerin. Calling for emergency assistance is crucial if the patient's condition does not improve or deteriorates. Reassuring the patient is essential for emotional support but should not be the primary intervention in the case of acute chest pain.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

4. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?

• A. Press over the bony area for 5 seconds and release
• B. Press over the skin for 10 seconds and check for discoloration
• C. Press the area and check for the presence of rash
• D. Press the skin and assess for rebound tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.

5. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?

• A. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision
• B. Inform the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior
• C. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion
• D. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.

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