Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Dry skin
• B. Weight loss
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious side effect of amiodarone, and should be reported. Dry skin is not typically associated with amiodarone use. Weight loss is a common side effect of amiodarone but not generally a cause for concern unless severe. Bradycardia is a known side effect of amiodarone and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless symptomatic.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of enalapril is hypotension, not hypertension (choice A), tachycardia (choice C), or hyperglycemia (choice D). Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications.

3. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Apical pulse
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

5. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your heart rate daily.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.

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