Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client for allergies before administering propofol. Which of the following allergies is a contraindication to the medication?

• A. Eggs
• B. Milk
• C. Shrimp
• D. Peanuts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Propofol is contraindicated in clients with egg allergies because it contains egg lecithin, which can trigger allergic reactions in sensitive individuals. Milk, shrimp, and peanuts are not contraindications for propofol administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks pregnant and reports leaking fluid. Which of the following tests should the nurse use to confirm that the client's membranes have ruptured?

• A. Nonstress test
• B. Biophysical profile
• C. Fern test
• D. Amniocentesis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the Fern test. The Fern test is specifically used to confirm the rupture of membranes. A sample of vaginal fluid is examined under a microscope, and the presence of a fern-like pattern indicates the presence of amniotic fluid. The Nonstress test (Choice A) is used to monitor fetal heart rate and movement, not to confirm ruptured membranes. The Biophysical profile (Choice B) is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation to assess fetal well-being, not to confirm ruptured membranes. Amniocentesis (Choice D) involves the aspiration of amniotic fluid for various diagnostic purposes, not specifically to confirm ruptured membranes.

3. A client expresses anxiety about an upcoming surgery. What should the nurse do?

• A. Reassure the client that everything will be fine
• B. Ask the client to describe feelings
• C. Tell the client to stay positive
• D. Provide information about the surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client to describe their feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. This allows the nurse to understand the specific concerns and anxieties the client is experiencing. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings and not address the root cause of anxiety. Choice C may come across as dismissive and oversimplified. While providing information about the surgery (Choice D) is important, addressing the client's emotional state is the initial priority in this situation.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Signs of superinfection
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

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