Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client for allergies before administering propofol. Which of the following allergies is a contraindication to the medication?

• A. Eggs
• B. Milk
• C. Shrimp
• D. Peanuts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Propofol is contraindicated in clients with egg allergies because it contains egg lecithin, which can trigger allergic reactions in sensitive individuals. Milk, shrimp, and peanuts are not contraindications for propofol administration.

2. A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Increased urination
• C. Tremors
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which laboratory value would indicate the need for hemodialysis?

• A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min
• B. BUN 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GFR of 14 mL/min indicates significant kidney damage and a severe decrease in kidney function. This level of GFR typically indicates the need for hemodialysis to help the kidneys perform their function adequately. BUN, serum magnesium, and serum phosphorus levels are important in assessing kidney function and managing chronic kidney disease but do not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

4. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). The client has a productive cough and is started on airborne precautions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client.
• B. Place the client in a semi-private room.
• C. Have the client wear a surgical mask during meals.
• D. Use a negative pressure air filtration system.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client with TB. This is crucial to prevent the nurse from inhaling the airborne particles that spread the infection. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in a semi-private room does not address the protection of the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as having the client wear a surgical mask during meals is not sufficient to protect the nurse during all interactions. Choice D is incorrect as using a negative pressure air filtration system is more applicable to airborne infection isolation rooms in healthcare settings and not a standard intervention for nurses caring for a single client with TB.

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