ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client for allergies before administering propofol. Which of the following allergies is a contraindication to the medication?
- A. Eggs
- B. Milk
- C. Shrimp
- D. Peanuts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Propofol is contraindicated in clients with egg allergies because it contains egg lecithin, which can trigger allergic reactions in sensitive individuals. Milk, shrimp, and peanuts are not contraindications for propofol administration.
2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the mother to breastfeed the newborn
- B. Gavage feed 60 mL (2 oz) of glucose water
- C. Administer 10 mL of D5W via IV
- D. Recheck the glucose level in 2 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the mother to breastfeed the newborn is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Breastfeeding can quickly raise blood glucose levels in newborns. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is often acceptable in newborns, but close monitoring is necessary. Gavage feeding with glucose water or administering D5W via IV may not be necessary at this point and could lead to potential risks of overfeeding or hypoglycemia. Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours may delay necessary intervention, as breastfeeding can promptly address the low blood glucose levels.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?
- A. Cornbread
- B. Mashed potatoes
- C. Lentils
- D. Tortillas
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lip-smacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Restrict protein intake to the RDA
- C. Increase dietary potassium
- D. Encourage foods high in sodium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.
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