Nursing Elites

1. What characteristic indicates that a mass on a newborn's head is a cephalohematoma?

• A. The mass appears on the second day after birth.
• B. The mass grows larger when the newborn cries.
• C. The head appears asymmetrical.
• D. The mass is located on only one side of the head.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma typically appears between the first and second days after birth, making choice A the correct answer. It results from blood vessel rupture between a cranial bone and the periosteal membrane. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the growth of the mass when the newborn cries, asymmetrical head appearance, or the mass being located on only one side of the head are not specific indicators of a cephalohematoma.

2. A child was brought to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and fruity-scented breath. The resident on duty diagnosed the child with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Potassium chloride IV infusion.
• B. Dextrose 5% IV infusion.
• C. Ringer's Lactate.
• D. Normal saline IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), there is a state of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Normal saline is the initial fluid of choice to help restore intravascular volume and improve electrolyte balance. It also helps to correct acidosis. Potassium chloride IV infusion is commonly added to the treatment regimen once kidney function is confirmed to prevent hypokalemia. Dextrose 5% IV infusion is not the first-line treatment for DKA as it can worsen hyperglycemia. Ringer's Lactate is not typically used as the initial fluid for managing DKA as it contains potassium and could worsen hyperkalemia.

3. A 3-year-old female has had severe diarrhea and vomiting for 4 days. She is now unresponsive with rapid, shallow respirations and thready radial pulses. Her heart rate is 160 beats/min, and her oxygen saturation is 88%. You should:

• A. Ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.
• B. Start chest compressions.
• C. Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask.
• D. Place her in the recovery position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric patient presenting with unresponsiveness, rapid, shallow respirations, thready pulses, high heart rate, and low oxygen saturation, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Ventilating the child with a bag-valve mask is crucial in this scenario to support her breathing and improve oxygenation, as indicated by her low oxygen saturation and respiratory distress. Starting chest compressions is not indicated as the child has a pulse. Administering high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask may not be as effective as providing positive pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask in this situation. Placing her in the recovery position is not appropriate when the child is unresponsive and in respiratory distress.

4. A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department by the mother, who states that the child has been complaining of abdominal pain and has been lethargic. Diabetic ketoacidosis is diagnosed. Anticipating the plan of care, the nurse prepares to administer which type of intravenous (IV) infusion?

• A. 5% dextrose infusion
• B. Normal saline infusion
• C. NPH insulin infusion
• D. Potassium infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial intravenous (IV) fluid of choice is normal saline infusion. Normal saline helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA patients. It does not contain glucose to prevent worsening hyperglycemia or ketoacidosis. NPH insulin infusion is not the initial treatment for DKA; it is typically used after fluid resuscitation. Potassium infusion may be required in DKA to address electrolyte imbalances, but normal saline is the priority for fluid resuscitation.

5. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?

• A. Vertex presentation
• B. Maternal hypertension
• C. Prolapsed umbilical cord
• D. Premature rupture of the amniotic sac

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.

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