ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A client with a tracheostomy shows signs of respiratory distress. What action should the nurse take immediately?
- A. Increase the suction setting on the ventilator
- B. Administer a bronchodilator
- C. Suction the tracheostomy
- D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate action for a client with a tracheostomy showing signs of respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. Respiratory distress in this case is often caused by a blockage, which can be quickly relieved by suctioning to clear the airway. Increasing the suction setting on the ventilator (Choice A) may not address the immediate blockage in the tracheostomy. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may help with bronchoconstriction but does not address the potential blockage in the tracheostomy. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may not be effective in relieving the immediate respiratory distress caused by a blocked tracheostomy.
2. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase the intake of potassium
- B. Limit the intake of phosphorus-rich foods
- C. Encourage the intake of protein-rich foods
- D. Advise the client to increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.
3. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia and how should it be managed?
- A. Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias; administer calcium gluconate
- B. Confusion and bradycardia; administer insulin and glucose
- C. Fatigue and irregular heart rate; administer diuretics
- D. Nausea and vomiting; administer sodium bicarbonate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, making choice A correct. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, and calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart by antagonizing the effects of potassium. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms and interventions that are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Confusion and bradycardia are not common in hyperkalemia, and insulin and glucose are used in hyperkalemia only under specific circumstances. Fatigue and irregular heart rate are vague symptoms, and diuretics are not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the management of hyperkalemia.
4. What is the process for taking a telephone order from a provider?
- A. Patient name, drug, dose, route, frequency
- B. Read back for accuracy
- C. Have a witness listen to the order
- D. Write down the order and follow up
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct process for taking a telephone order from a provider involves reading back the information for accuracy. This step ensures that the order is correctly understood and reduces the risk of errors. While listing patient information (Choice A) is essential, it does not encompass the complete process of verifying the order. Having a witness listen to the order (Choice C) may not always be practical or necessary, as direct verification is more efficient. Writing down the order and following up (Choice D) is not as crucial as the immediate read-back process, which allows for real-time clarification and confirmation.
5. A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder.
- B. Absent bowel sounds.
- C. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access