ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A client is experiencing difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling catheter. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?
- A. Assess for bladder distention after 4 hours
- B. Pour warm water over the perineum
- C. Restrict the client's oral fluid intake
- D. Restrict movement for at least 12 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to assist the client who is experiencing difficulty voiding after the removal of an indwelling catheter is to pour warm water over the perineum. This technique can help stimulate urination by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and improving blood flow to the area. Assessing for bladder distention after 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to assist the client in voiding. Restricting the client's oral fluid intake (Choice C) can exacerbate the issue by reducing urine production. Restricting movement for at least 12 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may lead to discomfort and other complications.
2. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia and how should it be managed?
- A. Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias; administer calcium gluconate
- B. Confusion and bradycardia; administer insulin and glucose
- C. Fatigue and irregular heart rate; administer diuretics
- D. Nausea and vomiting; administer sodium bicarbonate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, making choice A correct. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, and calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart by antagonizing the effects of potassium. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms and interventions that are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Confusion and bradycardia are not common in hyperkalemia, and insulin and glucose are used in hyperkalemia only under specific circumstances. Fatigue and irregular heart rate are vague symptoms, and diuretics are not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the management of hyperkalemia.
3. A client with a chest tube is post-op. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Clamp the chest tube every 2 hours
- B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
- C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
- D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This action is crucial post-op to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours (Choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a buildup of pressure within the chest, risking complications. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours (Choice C) is important for respiratory hygiene but not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing to clear secretions (Choice D) is not the priority when assessing a chest tube post-op; ensuring the chest tube's integrity and function take precedence.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication of a need for dosage adjustment?
- A. Tremors
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased appetite may indicate that the client is experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism due to an excessive dose of levothyroxine. This finding suggests a need for a dosage adjustment to prevent potential complications. Tremors are more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, not necessarily indicating a need for dosage adjustment. Bradycardia and diarrhea are not typical signs of an incorrect levothyroxine dosage and would not directly warrant a need for adjustment.
5. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
- A. Poor hygiene and dehydration
- B. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy
- C. Use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest
- D. Family history and obesity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.
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