Nursing Elites

1. A client is experiencing difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling catheter. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?

• A. Assess for bladder distention after 4 hours
• B. Pour warm water over the perineum
• C. Restrict the client's oral fluid intake
• D. Restrict movement for at least 12 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to assist the client who is experiencing difficulty voiding after the removal of an indwelling catheter is to pour warm water over the perineum. This technique can help stimulate urination by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and improving blood flow to the area. Assessing for bladder distention after 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to assist the client in voiding. Restricting the client's oral fluid intake (Choice C) can exacerbate the issue by reducing urine production. Restricting movement for at least 12 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may lead to discomfort and other complications.

2. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Administer IV fluids
• C. Monitor blood glucose
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is crucial to administer insulin to lower blood sugar levels, administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and monitor blood glucose levels regularly to ensure they are within the target range. Therefore, all of the above options are essential components of the comprehensive treatment plan for DKA. Administering insulin alone may lower blood sugar levels but will not address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances seen in DKA. Similarly, administering IV fluids alone may help with dehydration but will not address the high blood sugar levels or the need for insulin. Monitoring blood glucose alone is not sufficient to treat DKA; it must be accompanied by appropriate interventions to address the underlying causes and complications of the condition.

3. A client takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Gastric ulcer formation
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.

4. Which is the correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness?

• A. Use the cane on the weaker side of the body
• B. Advance the cane and the strong leg together
• C. Maintain two points of support on the floor at all times
• D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This approach ensures stability and helps the client maintain balance while using the cane. Choice A is incorrect because the cane should be used on the stronger side of the body to provide additional support. Choice B is incorrect as advancing the cane and the strong leg together may compromise stability. Choice D is incorrect as advancing the cane too far with each step can lead to imbalance and falls.

5. A nurse is receiving report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who is NPO and has dry mucous membranes
• B. A client with rotavirus who has been vomiting
• C. A client who has a urinary catheter and cloudy urine
• D. A client who has pneumonia and a new onset of confusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with pneumonia and a new onset of confusion needs immediate evaluation for changes in neurological status. This could indicate a decline in respiratory status or potential complications such as hypoxia or sepsis. Option A, a client who is NPO and has dry mucous membranes, may need intervention but does not indicate an acute change in condition. Option B, a client with rotavirus who has been vomiting, requires assessment and intervention but does not pose an immediate threat to life. Option C, a client with a urinary catheter and cloudy urine, may indicate a urinary tract infection but does not require immediate attention compared to the client with new onset confusion and pneumonia.

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