ATI LPN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A business firm must employ an occupational health nurse when it has at least how many employees?
- A. 21
- B. 101
- C. 201
- D. 301
Correct answer: B
Rationale:
2. A 4-year-old boy ingested an unknown quantity of drain cleaner. He is alert, has a patent airway, and has adequate breathing. You should:
- A. administer 1 g/kg of activated charcoal.
- B. give 15 mL of ipecac and contact medical control.
- C. contact poison control and give him oxygen.
- D. give oxygen and perform a head-to-toe exam.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a child ingests a harmful substance like drain cleaner and remains alert with a patent airway and adequate breathing, the initial steps involve contacting poison control to guide further management. In this scenario, providing oxygen to support respiratory function is essential until definitive care is established. Activated charcoal and ipecac are not recommended in the management of ingested caustic substances like drain cleaner. Performing a head-to-toe exam can wait until the child's immediate respiratory needs are addressed and the poison control center has provided guidance on further management.
3. A client who is to undergo a colonoscopy is being taught by a nurse about the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will drink liquids right up until the procedure.
- B. I will need to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before the procedure.
- C. I will be sedated and will not feel any pain during the procedure.
- D. I will not need to follow any specific dietary restrictions for this procedure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. During a colonoscopy, clients are typically sedated, so they do not feel any pain during the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Clients are usually required to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before a colonoscopy, and there are specific dietary restrictions that need to be followed before the procedure to ensure a successful examination.
4. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
- A. Placenta previa
- B. Prolapsed cord
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Abruptio placentae
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.
5. What is the primary purpose of the Field Health Services and Information System (FHSIS)?
- A. To monitor hospital services
- B. To record and report public health services
- C. To evaluate private health services
- D. To manage health insurance claims
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of the Field Health Services and Information System (FHSIS) is to record and report public health services. It is specifically designed to improve health service delivery and planning by systematically collecting, managing, and analyzing health-related data. Monitoring hospital services, evaluating private health services, and managing health insurance claims are not the primary functions of the FHSIS, which is focused on public health services.
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