Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
• C. Fortification of bones.
• D. Suppression of candidiasis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of this condition?

• A. Abnormal movements of the mouth
• B. Inability to stand without assistance
• C. Paralysis of the right arm
• D. Loss of appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal movements of the mouth are a common indication of dysphagia, a condition that impairs swallowing function. In clients who have had a stroke, dysphagia can increase the risk of aspiration, leading to serious complications. Inability to stand without assistance (Choice B) is more indicative of motor deficits following a stroke rather than dysphagia. Paralysis of the right arm (Choice C) is a manifestation of hemiplegia, which is common in stroke but not directly related to dysphagia. Loss of appetite (Choice D) may occur in individuals with dysphagia but is not a direct indicator of the condition itself.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed montelukast. Which of the following should the nurse include in teaching related to this medication?

• A. Advise the client to take the medication once daily at bedtime.
• B. This medication is for acute management of asthma.
• C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. If the client forgets to take the medication for a few days, he can double up on doses to catch up.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to take the medication once daily at bedtime. Montelukast, a leukotriene modifier, is used for long-term therapy of asthma in adults and children, as well as to prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. It should be taken once daily in the evening for optimal effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because montelukast is not for acute management but for long-term therapy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while taking montelukast. Choice D is incorrect and potentially harmful advice; clients should never double up on doses if they forget to take a medication.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Fever
• C. Improved appetite
• D. Stable weight

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. The correct answer is 'Fever.' Fever is a common sign of infection and indicates an immune response to an invading pathogen. Increased energy (Choice A) is not typically associated with infection, as the body often feels fatigued when fighting an infection. Improved appetite (Choice C) and stable weight (Choice D) are not specific signs of infection and may not necessarily indicate the presence of an infectious process. Therefore, the healthcare professional should focus on monitoring for fever as a key indicator of infection.

5. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?

• A. Gentamicin
• B. Clindamycin
• C. Piperacillin
• D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.

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