Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
• C. Fortification of bones.
• D. Suppression of candidiasis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of insulin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the expiration date
• B. Verify the client's blood glucose level
• C. Obtain the client's weight
• D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood glucose level first before administering insulin. This step is crucial to determine the appropriate dose of insulin based on the client's current blood glucose level. Checking the expiration date (Choice A) is important but not the first step in this scenario. Obtaining the client's weight (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate administration of insulin. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia (Choice D) should be done after administering insulin to monitor for potential side effects or adverse reactions.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

• A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min
• B. BUN 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min indicates severely impaired kidney function, often necessitating hemodialysis to support renal function and manage fluid and electrolyte balance. A BUN level of 16 mg/dL falls within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Serum magnesium at 1.8 mg/dL and serum phosphorus at 4.0 mg/dL are also within normal ranges and do not typically prompt the immediate need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.

4. A nurse is planning care for a group of postoperative clients. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Administer IV pain medication to a client who reports pain as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
• B. Administer oxygen to a client who has an oxygen saturation of 91%
• C. Instruct a client who is 1 hr postoperative about coughing and deep breathing exercises
• D. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride for a client who has just had abdominal surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When using the ABC approach to client care, the nurse should identify that the priority intervention is administering oxygen. In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation is only 91%, which is below the normal range of 95% and above. Oxygen is essential for adequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs. Administering oxygen takes precedence over other interventions to ensure the client's physiological needs are met first. Choice A can be addressed after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Choice C is important for preventing postoperative complications but is not as urgent as addressing oxygen saturation. Choice D is a common postoperative intervention, but in this case, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the priority over IV fluid administration.

5. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Initiate droplet precautions
• B. Assist the client to a supine position
• C. Perform Glasgow Coma Scale assessment every 24 hours
• D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client’s family

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Initiate droplet precautions.' Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions to prevent the spread of infection, as the bacteria can be transmitted through respiratory secretions. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a supine position is not specific to the care of a client with bacterial meningitis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Choice C is incorrect because while performing Glasgow Coma Scale assessments is important in managing clients with neurological conditions, it is not directly related to preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect because recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family is not a standard precautionary measure for preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis.

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