Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
• C. Fortification of bones.
• D. Suppression of candidiasis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

2. While caring for a client receiving nitroglycerin for chest pain, which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause hypotension due to its vasodilating effect, which can lead to low blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, light-headedness, or weakness. Tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are not typically associated with nitroglycerin use and are less likely to be side effects that the nurse needs to monitor for in this scenario.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the psychiatric emergency services by law enforcement. The client has disorganized, incoherent speech with loose associations and religious content. The nurse should recognize these signs and symptoms as consistent with which of the following?

• A. Alzheimer's disease
• B. Schizophrenia
• C. Substance intoxication
• D. Depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Schizophrenia. Disorganized speech, loose associations, and religious delusions are characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. In this scenario, the client's presentation aligns with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, indicating a severe mental disorder requiring immediate attention. Choice A, Alzheimer's disease, primarily involves cognitive decline and memory impairment, not disorganized speech or religious content. Choice C, Substance intoxication, may present with altered mental status but typically lacks the persistent pattern of symptoms seen in schizophrenia. Choice D, Depression, is associated with a different set of symptoms such as low mood, anhedonia, and changes in appetite or sleep, rather than disorganized speech and loose associations.

4. A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?

• A. Kegel exercises
• B. Isometric exercises
• C. Circumduction exercises
• D. Uterine extension exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.

5. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 3,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 250,000/mm³
• D. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm³. A WBC count of 3,000/mm³ indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm³, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.

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