a 40 year old woman presents with fatigue polyuria and polydipsia laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria what is the most likely diagnosi
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1. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.

3. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. An air leak can lead to ineffective lung expansion, respiratory distress, and compromised gas exchange. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to maintain the integrity of the closed drainage system and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serosanguineous drainage is an expected finding post-thoracotomy, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is normal, and having the chest tube secured to the client's chest wall is essential for stability and proper functioning.

4. What instruction should be provided to a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) who is prescribed nitroglycerin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a medication that should be stored in a dark, glass container to protect it from light and moisture. Exposure to light and moisture can reduce its effectiveness. Storing it in a dark, glass container helps maintain the medication's stability and potency, ensuring that it remains safe and effective for use in emergencies, such as angina attacks.

5. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.

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