ATI LPN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. Which medication is commonly used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Lithium
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Fluoxetine (Choice B). Fluoxetine, an SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor), is commonly used in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). SSRIs like Fluoxetine are considered first-line medications for managing OCD symptoms by helping to increase serotonin levels in the brain, which plays a role in mood regulation and anxiety reduction. Choice A, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders but is not a first-line treatment for OCD. Choice C, Lithium, is typically used in conditions like bipolar disorder, not OCD. Choice D, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic medication and is not commonly used to treat OCD.
2. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'
- A. A higher dosage
- B. Once-a-week dosing
- C. A lower dosage
- D. A different drug
Correct answer: C
Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.
3. When developing a care plan for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which long-term goal is most appropriate?
- A. The patient will experience no episodes of anxiety.
- B. The patient will recognize and modify anxiety-provoking thoughts.
- C. The patient will avoid situations that cause anxiety.
- D. The patient will take medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate long-term goal for managing generalized anxiety disorder is for the patient to recognize and modify anxiety-provoking thoughts. By addressing and modifying these thoughts, the patient can develop coping mechanisms and strategies to manage their anxiety more effectively in the long term. Choices A and C are not ideal long-term goals as complete elimination of anxiety episodes or avoidance of anxiety-provoking situations may not be realistic or sustainable. Choice D focuses solely on medication adherence, which is important but does not address the core cognitive-behavioral aspects of managing anxiety in GAD.
4. Which therapeutic communication technique involves restating the patient's message to ensure understanding?
- A. Clarification
- B. Reflection
- C. Summarization
- D. Paraphrasing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Paraphrasing is the correct therapeutic communication technique where the nurse restates the patient's message in their own words to confirm understanding. This technique helps in validating the patient's feelings and ensuring that both parties are in agreement, leading to effective communication and rapport building. Choice A, 'Clarification,' involves seeking further information to enhance understanding rather than restating the message. Choice B, 'Reflection,' involves echoing the patient's feelings to show empathy rather than restating the message. Choice C, 'Summarization,' involves condensing the main points of a conversation rather than restating a specific message.
5. Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
- A. Sertraline
- B. Diazepam
- C. Methylphenidate
- D. Clozapine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylphenidate is the correct answer. It is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD. Methylphenidate works by increasing the activity of certain chemicals in the brain that are involved in attention and impulse control. Sertraline is an antidepressant used for depression, anxiety, and other conditions, not ADHD. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine mainly prescribed for anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures, not ADHD. Clozapine is an antipsychotic medication used for schizophrenia when other medications are ineffective, not for ADHD.
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