ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. Which instruction should be emphasized for a client with diabetes being discharged?
- A. Check blood sugar once daily
- B. Take insulin before meals as prescribed
- C. Monitor glucose levels weekly
- D. Eat carbohydrate-rich meals to maintain glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Take insulin before meals as prescribed' because it is crucial for managing blood glucose levels effectively in clients with diabetes. Insulin helps the body utilize glucose from the food consumed, preventing high blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar once daily (Choice A) may not be sufficient for proper management, as blood sugar levels can fluctuate throughout the day. Monitoring glucose levels weekly (Choice C) is too infrequent and may lead to missed opportunities for timely intervention. Eating carbohydrate-rich meals to maintain glucose levels (Choice D) is not appropriate advice, as it can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels, especially without the proper insulin dosage.
2. What are the risk factors for developing hypertension?
- A. High sodium diet and lack of physical activity
- B. Low potassium intake and excessive alcohol consumption
- C. Frequent exercise and low cholesterol diet
- D. Smoking and family history
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: High sodium diet and lack of physical activity. These are established risk factors for developing hypertension as they contribute to elevated blood pressure. Choice B, low potassium intake and excessive alcohol consumption, may also impact blood pressure but are not as strongly associated with hypertension as high sodium intake and lack of physical activity. Choice C, frequent exercise and a low cholesterol diet, are actually beneficial for reducing the risk of hypertension. Choice D, smoking and family history, are more closely linked to other health conditions such as cardiovascular diseases, rather than being primary risk factors for hypertension.
3. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?
- A. Sweating, nausea; administer methadone
- B. Muscle cramps, vomiting; administer naloxone
- C. Tremors, sweating; administer buprenorphine
- D. Fever, agitation; provide sedatives
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
- B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
- C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
- D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.
5. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?
- A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
- B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
- C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
- D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.
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