Nursing Elites

1. What is the first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection?

• A. Change the dressing every 12 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics
• C. Cleanse the wound with normal saline
• D. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the specific infecting organism and determine the most effective antibiotic therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changing the dressing, cleansing the wound, or applying a wet-to-dry dressing should only be done after obtaining the culture results and starting appropriate antibiotic treatment.

2. What are the nursing interventions for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?

• A. Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding
• B. Administer antiplatelet therapy
• C. Check for signs of DVT and provide anticoagulation
• D. Administer aspirin and monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy is to monitor INR levels and check for signs of bleeding. Monitoring the INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy, while checking for bleeding is essential due to the increased risk associated with anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect as antiplatelet therapy is not the standard treatment for patients on anticoagulant therapy. Choice C is incorrect as providing additional anticoagulation is not a direct nursing intervention in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because administering aspirin, an antiplatelet medication, along with anticoagulants can increase the risk of bleeding and is generally avoided.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

4. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial when a client is taking digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypernatremia, hypertension, and tachycardia are not directly associated with digoxin use.

5. What is the priority intervention for sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the management of sepsis, prompt intervention is crucial. Administering IV antibiotics is essential to target the underlying infection. Monitoring blood pressure helps assess the patient's hemodynamic status. Administering fluids is vital to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of the initial management of sepsis, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choosing any single intervention over the others may delay optimal care and compromise patient outcomes.

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