ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?
- A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
- B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
- C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
- D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Heart rate 60/min
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Increased respiratory rate
- D. Hypothermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the early stages of hypovolemic shock, the body initiates compensatory mechanisms to maintain perfusion. One of these mechanisms is an increased respiratory rate to improve oxygen delivery. This helps to offset the decreased circulating blood volume. A heart rate of 60/min (choice A) is not expected in hypovolemic shock; instead, tachycardia is a common finding due to the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output. Increased urinary output (choice B) is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock as the body tries to conserve fluid. Hypothermia (choice D) is usually a late sign of shock when the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing, and perfusion is severely compromised.
3. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
- B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase intake of dairy products
- D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.
4. When managing a physically assaultive client, the nurse's INITIAL priority is to
- A. Restrict the client to the room
- B. Place the client under one-to-one supervision
- C. Restore the client's self-control and prevent further loss of control
- D. Clear the immediate area of other clients to prevent harm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with a physically assaultive client, the initial priority is to focus on restoring the client's self-control and preventing further escalation. Restricting the client to the room (choice A) may escalate the situation and is not the initial priority. Placing the client under one-to-one supervision (choice B) is important but comes after ensuring the client's self-control. Clearing the immediate area of other clients (choice D) is essential for safety but is not the initial priority when compared to restoring the client's self-control.
5. What should a healthcare provider prioritize for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder?
- A. Monitor for hyperactivity
- B. Monitor for signs of depression
- C. Monitor for changes in self-esteem
- D. Monitor for changes in energy levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, the priority is to monitor for signs of depression. Individuals with bipolar disorder are at risk of severe depressive episodes, making it crucial to watch for signs of depression. While changes in energy levels and self-esteem are common in bipolar disorder, they are not the primary focus. Hyperactivity is a characteristic of the manic phase of bipolar disorder, so monitoring for depression is the priority in this case.
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