Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with home oxygen. What is the most important safety consideration?

• A. Restrict fluid intake while using oxygen
• B. Ensure oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources
• C. Allow family members to smoke in designated areas
• D. Store oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources. This is crucial to prevent any potential fire hazard, as oxygen supports combustion. Restricting fluid intake while using oxygen (choice A) is not necessary for oxygen safety. Allowing family members to smoke in designated areas (choice C) poses a significant fire risk. Storing oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use (choice D) is unsafe because proper ventilation is needed to prevent oxygen accumulation.

3. Which of the following is an early indication that a tracheostomy client requires suctioning?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Irritability
• C. Hypotension
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is indeed an early sign that a tracheostomy client may require suctioning. When a tracheostomy client becomes irritable, it can indicate that there is a need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (choice A) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct indication for suctioning. Hypotension (choice C) indicates low blood pressure and is not specifically related to the need for suctioning. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) can be a sign of respiratory distress, but irritability is a more direct and early indication of the need for suctioning in a tracheostomy client.

4. A client post-lumbar puncture should be in which position?

• A. High Fowler's position
• B. Prone position
• C. Supine position
• D. Sitting position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client post-lumbar puncture is the supine position. Placing the client in a supine position helps prevent spinal headaches by allowing the puncture site to seal effectively and reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. High Fowler's position, prone position, and sitting position are not recommended after a lumbar puncture as they may increase the risk of complications like spinal headaches.

5. A nurse has administered medications to a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report?

• A. Administering acetaminophen to an NPO client
• B. Administering insulin lispro to an NPO client
• C. Administering medication to the incorrect client
• D. Administering anticoagulants without checking INR

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because administering insulin lispro to an NPO client can lead to hypoglycemia due to the lack of food to balance the medication. This situation poses a serious risk to the client's safety and should be documented in an incident report. Choice A is not as critical as insulin administration for an NPO client. Choice C is also serious but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Choice D, administering anticoagulants without checking the INR, is important but does not require an incident report unless adverse effects occur, as it may not immediately endanger the client's life.

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