ATI LPN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN
1. A postpartum client is experiencing difficulty voiding. What should the nurse include in the care plan to assist the client?
- A. Encourage the client to drink caffeine-free beverages.
- B. Apply a warm compress to the client's lower abdomen.
- C. Encourage increased fluid intake to promote urinary flow.
- D. Assist the client with Kegel exercises.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying a warm compress to the lower abdomen can help relax the muscles and stimulate voiding in postpartum clients. It promotes vasodilation, increases blood flow to the area, and can aid in relieving urinary retention. Encouraging caffeine-free beverages can also be beneficial as caffeine can irritate the bladder and worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent urinary stasis and promotes bladder emptying. Kegel exercises can strengthen pelvic floor muscles over time, but in the immediate situation of difficulty voiding, a warm compress is more appropriate.
2. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
- A. Cesarean birth
- B. Vaginal birth
- C. Anemia
- D. Multiparity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.
3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day
- B. Avoid green leafy vegetables in your diet
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods
- D. Stop the medication if you notice any bruising
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking warfarin at the same time each day is crucial to maintain consistent blood levels and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Consistent timing helps in monitoring and adjusting the dosage as needed to keep the international normalized ratio (INR) within the therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding green leafy vegetables is a misconception; while they are high in vitamin K which antagonizes warfarin, they should not be avoided but consumed in moderation. Increasing vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Stopping the medication due to bruising can be dangerous as it may indicate a clotting problem that the medication is intended to prevent.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of cirrhosis is receiving dietary management education from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- B. You should decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reducing the intake of sodium-rich foods is beneficial for managing fluid retention and symptoms of cirrhosis. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid buildup in the body, worsening edema and ascites commonly associated with cirrhosis. Therefore, advising the client to decrease their intake of sodium-rich foods is crucial in the dietary management of cirrhosis. Option A is incorrect as increasing sodium intake would exacerbate fluid retention. Option C is irrelevant to cirrhosis management unless the client has lactose intolerance. Option D is incorrect as increasing dairy product intake may not be suitable for all patients with cirrhosis, especially if they have complications like hepatic encephalopathy.
5. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
- A. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision
- B. Inform the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior
- C. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion
- D. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.
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