a nurse is teaching a client who is undergoing surgery about the use of a patient controlled analgesia pca pump which of the following statements by t
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Nursing Elites

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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. A client undergoing surgery is being taught about the use of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients should press the button on the PCA pump when they feel pain to receive controlled doses of medication. Option A is incorrect as the client should be the one to self-administer the medication through the PCA pump. Option B is incorrect as the primary purpose of the PCA pump is to manage pain, not to keep the client comfortable. Option C is incorrect because the client should not adjust the dosage themselves; instead, they should communicate any pain concerns to the healthcare provider.

2. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is lack of sleep (choice B). In acute mania, lack of sleep can exacerbate symptoms, lead to exhaustion, and pose serious risks to the client's well-being. Addressing the client's sleep deprivation is a priority as it can impact their overall health and recovery. Increased speech (choice A) and agitation (choice C) are common in acute mania but do not pose immediate physical risks like lack of sleep. Poor concentration (choice D) is also a symptom of acute mania but addressing sleep deprivation takes precedence due to its severe consequences.

5. A client expresses doubt about the benefits of surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the client's expressed uncertainty about the surgery. By acknowledging the client's feelings, the nurse validates their concerns and opens the door for further discussion. This approach can help build trust and rapport with the client. Option A focuses more on seeking justification for the client's belief rather than addressing the underlying emotion. Option B, while acknowledging doubt, does not directly address the client's feelings. Option C, although well-intentioned, dismisses the client's concerns without exploring them further.

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