ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A client undergoing surgery is being taught about the use of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will ask my spouse to push the button when I am sleeping
- B. I will use the PCA pump to keep me comfortable during the night
- C. I will ask the nurse to increase the dosage if I still feel pain
- D. I will press the button for medication as soon as I feel pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients should press the button on the PCA pump when they feel pain to receive controlled doses of medication. Option A is incorrect as the client should be the one to self-administer the medication through the PCA pump. Option B is incorrect as the primary purpose of the PCA pump is to manage pain, not to keep the client comfortable. Option C is incorrect because the client should not adjust the dosage themselves; instead, they should communicate any pain concerns to the healthcare provider.
2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
- C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.
3. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
- A. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision
- B. Inform the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior
- C. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion
- D. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.
4. What is the most important step when preparing to administer a blood transfusion?
- A. Check if the client has a fever
- B. Ensure the blood type is compatible with the client
- C. Administer the blood via IV push
- D. Ensure the blood is warmed to body temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensure the blood type is compatible with the client. This is the most crucial step in preparing for a blood transfusion to prevent severe transfusion reactions. Checking the client for a fever (Choice A) is important but not the most critical step. Administering blood via IV push (Choice C) is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered as a slow drip. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice D) is not a standard practice and can lead to hemolysis, making it an incorrect choice.
5. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?
- A. Administer sedative medication to calm the client
- B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
- C. Limit environmental stimulation to reduce anxiety
- D. Administer antipsychotic medication to control behavior
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.
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