Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client with chronic emphysema. Which result suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg is elevated, indicating carbon dioxide retention, a common complication of emphysema that necessitates intervention. Elevated PaCO2 can lead to respiratory acidosis, reflecting inadequate ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges. A PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg is acceptable. An HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L falls within the normal range, suggesting adequate compensation. A pH level of 7.37 is also within the normal range, indicating the client's acid-base balance is maintained.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. How far apart are your contractions?
• C. Do you have any active lesions?
• D. Are you positive for beta strep?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.

3. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
• B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
• C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
• D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.

4. Using Naegele's Rule, what is the estimated delivery date for a pregnant client whose last menstrual period was on May 4th, 2013?

• A. January 15, 2014
• B. February 11, 2014
• C. March 3, 2014
• D. December 25, 2013

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Naegele's rule is a standard method for calculating the estimated delivery date (EDD). It involves subtracting three months from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), adding seven days, and then adding one year. For a client with an LMP of May 4th, 2013, subtracting three months gives February 4th. Adding seven days results in a due date of February 11th, 2014, which is the correct answer. Choice A (January 15, 2014) is incorrect as it does not account for the full calculation. Choice C (March 3, 2014) is incorrect as it adds too many days in the calculation. Choice D (December 25, 2013) is incorrect as it does not follow the correct steps of Naegele's rule.

5. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

• A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old client who has slurred speech and reports a headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with slurred speech and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent irreversible brain damage. While each client requires prompt assessment and care, the priority is to address potentially life-threatening conditions first. Choices A, B, and C, although important, do not present with symptoms as critical as those of a possible stroke, which necessitates urgent intervention.

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