Nursing Elites

1. A client with gout is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Nausea
• B. Metallic taste
• C. Fever
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Fever can indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, known as allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome, which can be severe and even life-threatening. Nausea and drowsiness are common side effects of allopurinol but not necessarily indications to discontinue the medication. Metallic taste is not typically associated with allopurinol use. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize to the client the importance of reporting any signs of fever promptly for further evaluation and management.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tamoxifen. The nurse should recognize that tamoxifen has which of the following therapeutic effects?

• A. Antiestrogenic
• B. Antimicrobial
• C. Androgenic
• D. Anti-inflammatory

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen medication used primarily in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer. It works by blocking the effects of estrogen in the breast tissue, thereby acting as an antiestrogenic agent. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choice B, antimicrobial, is incorrect as tamoxifen does not possess antimicrobial properties and is not used to treat infections. Choice C, androgenic, is incorrect as tamoxifen has antiestrogenic effects, not androgenic effects. Choice D, anti-inflammatory, is incorrect as tamoxifen's main therapeutic action is antiestrogenic rather than anti-inflammatory.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Respiratory depression can occur within 7 minutes after the morphine is administered.
• B. The morphine will peak within a few minutes.
• C. Withhold the morphine if the client has a respiratory rate less than 16/min.
• D. Administer the morphine over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because respiratory depression is a significant risk when administering morphine, and it can occur within 7 minutes after administration. This information is crucial for the nurse to recognize and respond promptly. Choice B is incorrect because the peak effect of morphine via IV bolus is typically reached within a few minutes, not specifically 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect because withholding morphine based solely on a respiratory rate less than 16/min may not be appropriate without considering other factors such as pain level, oxygen saturation, and overall respiratory status. Choice D is incorrect because administering morphine over 2 minutes may not prevent respiratory depression if it occurs rapidly after administration. Nurses should be vigilant for signs of respiratory depression regardless of the administration duration.

4. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication?

• A. Hearing examination
• B. Glucose tolerance test
• C. Electrocardiogram
• D. Pulmonary function tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Electrocardiogram. Amitriptyline can cause cardiac arrhythmias, so an electrocardiogram is necessary before starting treatment. A hearing examination (choice A) is not required before initiating amitriptyline. A glucose tolerance test (choice B) is not indicated for starting this medication. Pulmonary function tests (choice D) are not necessary before initiating amitriptyline for depression.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

• A. 33 gtt/min
• B. 66 gtt/min
• C. 10 gtt/min
• D. 14 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

Similar Questions