ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects?
- A. Increases blood pressure
- B. Prevents esophageal bleeding
- C. Decreases heart rate
- D. Reduces ammonia levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduces ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce blood ammonia levels in clients with hepatic encephalopathy. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because lactulose does not have the therapeutic effect of increasing blood pressure, preventing esophageal bleeding, or decreasing heart rate.
2. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- B. Oliguria
- C. Increased urine concentration
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine specific gravity of 1.035. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration as the kidneys conserve water in response to dehydration. Choice B, oliguria, refers to decreased urine output, which can be a sign of dehydration but is not specific to it. Choice C, increased urine concentration, is a general term and does not directly indicate dehydration. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)
- A. 33 gtt/min
- B. 66 gtt/min
- C. 10 gtt/min
- D. 14 gtt/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.
4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- B. Urine specific gravity of 444
- C. Urine specific gravity of 2000
- D. Urine specific gravity of 1111.1
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration. In this case, a urine specific gravity of 1.035 suggests concentrated urine, indicating dehydration. Choices B, C, and D have values that are not within the normal range for urine specific gravity and do not indicate dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 444, 2000, or 1111.1 are not physiologically possible values and are therefore incorrect.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Stop taking the isoniazid for 3 days and the discoloration should go away.
- B. Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.
- C. I'll make an appointment for you to see the provider this afternoon.
- D. Isoniazid can cause bladder irritation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.' Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. This side effect is harmless and does not indicate a need to stop the medication. Choice A is incorrect because stopping isoniazid will not resolve the orange urine discoloration caused by rifampin. Choice C is unnecessary at this point since the orange urine is a known side effect of rifampin and does not require an urgent provider visit. Choice D is incorrect because bladder irritation is not typically associated with isoniazid.
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