Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should have your white blood cell count checked regularly.
• B. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. You should avoid eating foods high in tyramine.
• D. You should avoid taking this medication with milk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should have your white blood cell count checked regularly.' Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a low white blood cell count. Regular monitoring of the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early and prevent serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking clozapine on an empty stomach, avoiding foods high in tyramine, or avoiding taking the medication with milk are not specific instructions related to the potential adverse effect of agranulocytosis associated with clozapine.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Report a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being educated by a healthcare professional about monitoring for adverse effects. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. 'I should use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth.'
• B. 'I will double my dose if I miss one.'
• C. 'I should increase my intake of leafy green vegetables.'
• D. 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.' This statement indicates a good understanding of the teaching regarding warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding. Contacting the doctor if unusual bleeding or bruising is noticed is essential as it can help prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a soft toothbrush is generally recommended for oral hygiene but is not directly related to monitoring for adverse effects of warfarin. Doubling the dose of warfarin if a dose is missed is dangerous and can increase the risk of bleeding. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness as they contain vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's anticoagulant effects.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. The client will wear a Holter monitor for continuous cardiac monitoring over the next 24 hours. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?

• A. Shave the front of the client's chest
• B. Give the client a device holder to wear around the waist
• C. Teach the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours
• D. Tell the client to cover the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing the client with a device holder to wear around the waist allows them to comfortably carry the Holter monitor while engaging in normal activities throughout the 24-hour monitoring period. This approach supports the client's mobility and ensures the monitor is securely in place for accurate readings. Shaving the front of the client's chest is unnecessary and not a standard practice for Holter monitor placement. Instructing the client to rest as much as possible does not promote normal daily activities which are important for accurate monitoring. Covering the monitor in plastic wrap before bathing is not recommended as it may affect the functionality of the device.

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